Questions related to Slavic studies
I am looking for information on the whereabouts of copies of Filip Stanislavov’s Abagar, which were printed in Rome in 1651 by the Propaganda Fide (see, for example, http://www.worldcat.org/oclc/500346281, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abagar). My starting point is the list published in Rajkov’s 1979 monograph Абагар на Филип Станиславов. Рим. 1651 г., but I would be interested in information on copies in any library. My e-mail address is per.ambrosiani (at) umu.se.
I didn't find any information about an illegal use of this orthographic system in the printed Ukranian mass media texts. I know that this orthography is used in other states, but my interest is focused on Ukraine (1991-2015). I''ll be very grateful for all variants of your sociolinguistic comments.
Earlier in my studies of Historical Linguistics and Classical Latin I hypothesized of Common-Slavic *muži "man" (alongside with Lithuanian žmuo, Latin homo, -inis, Old-English guma) to have descended from PIE root for "earth" *dhegh'- in the form of *dhgh'-m-ón "earthling" contradicting the contemporary explanation reasoning that the Common Slavic word was a borrowing from Germanic *man- but failing to explain the /ž/ element in it /ref. Machek: Slovak and Czech Etymological Dictionary, 1975/.
Now, I wonder what the modern PIE etymology has to say about this, whether it's been resolved for good in the meantime, and what is the current state of affairs. Was I right back then?
Have US already reoriented its interest to Middle East and East Asia as the redistribution of state-sponsored research funds have shown?