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case law as authority would be usefull in this regard. i would appreciate a case of reviwe where the attorney was allowed advocates' fees for representing a client in the high court
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In South African law, attorneys can charge fees equivalent to those of advocates when representing clients in the High Court, but it depends on the court's discretion and the nature of representation. Generally, attorneys and advocates have distinct fee structures, but courts have allowed attorneys to claim advocates’ fees in certain cases.
A key case is Rautenbach v RAF (2012), where the court permitted an attorney to recover fees at an advocate’s rate when performing similar work. Courts consider factors like the complexity of the case, the attorney’s experience, and whether an advocate would have typically been briefed.
Another relevant case is City of Johannesburg v Kaplan NO (2006), where the court recognized circumstances where attorneys could claim higher fees. Uniform Rule 69 also provides guidance on taxation of costs.
To ensure advocate-level fees, attorneys must justify their role as equivalent to an advocate’s in legal complexity and expertise.
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Synthetic leases have been in decline since the Enron fraud.
Is the new standard getting read of this type pf leases or is it treating them differently than topic 840?
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El topic 842 requiete una no revaloracion del arrendamiento
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Who can give me up-to-date source references on non-European legal philosophical discussions, dealing with anthropogenic climate change (e.g. references to conference proceedings or similar)?
Thank you!
Eckardt
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This is a good starting point Eckardt. It provides brief summaries of views on climate change by global region. You can identify the ones you wish to get more detail on and then search for specific philosophical material for that region.
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On 1 July 2012, the preliminary reference procedure was introduced at the Supreme Court of the Netherlands. When lower civil courts face controversial points of law, they may refer a question of interpretation to the Supreme Court and request a preliminary ruling. This way, the Supreme Court should be able to provide legal practice with a faster and more specific response to pressing legal questions than through the ‘ordinary’ procedure.
This preliminary reference procedure is not a modern invention. It was already known in Rome, existed in a specific form in France (référé législatif, where a question of interpretation was referred to the legislator), was used at the Italian Corte Costitutionale and has been a powerful tool for the development of EU law by the European Court of Justice in Luxembourg (see the attached blog and article). Furthermore, Protocol 16 to the ECHR will allow highest courts of states that have ratified this Protocol to refer a question of principle to the European Court of Human Rights for an advisory opinion.
I wanted to use ResearchGate for a small comparative exercise. Perhaps you would like to answer the following questions. May lower courts in your country refer a question of interpretation to the highest court(s) in your country? Did such an instrument once exist, or is the introduction of such an instrument currently under consideration in your country?
I am also interested in literature on this subject and in other relevant international examples.
Your help is greatly appreciated,
Ruben
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The Curia of Hungary, as the highest instance judicial forum of the country, has the constitutional duty to harmonise the administration of justice within the Hungarian judiciary, mainly by means of rendering uniformity decisions. The Curia renders uniformity decisions in cases rasing issues of theoretical importance in order to ensure the uniform application of law within the Hungarian judiciary. Such decisions are binding on all Hungarian courts. The operative parts of uniformity decisions – as brief summaries – are accessible hereunder:
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should questioning be allowed by police investigators
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Providing the interview is carried out by highly trained and specialist officers these intreviews can provide essential evidence.
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In some circumstances, unilateral acts conducted by the manufacturer/supplier may constitute a restrictive agreement within the meaning of Article 101 TFEU. I've been looking for the most recent judgments of the EU courts in this subject. 
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Sorry for the late reply. Thank you!
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In FIDIC,there is a DAB to solve dispute before lawsuit  and arbitration.Just like  ad hoc arbitration is one of atbitration ways,there may be a large difiniation concept  to discribe  it.DAB‘s procedure is kind of like arbitration but its  judgement is not support by force,while arbitration is supported by force and once is it decided,one cannot go for lawsuit help?
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I'll be another vote for mediation.  In our appellate court, cases come to us where they have already been decided at the trial level, whether as a matter of law by the judge, or as the result of a trial where evidence was taken. One might think that having an adjudicated "winner" and "loser" would tend to make the parties' positions more entrenched, and the parties less likely to change their views--particularly the "winners"  However, we do have a mediation office, to which we refer many cases which, in the judgment of our staff attorneys and judges are perhaps not so clear-cut.  Our mediator (whose surname is really Rambo) successfully mediates settlements about 40% of the time he is given a case, to the tune of perhaps 40 a year (our total caseload is about 900).  This is a significant achievement by an exceptionally gifted mediator, but demonstrates that even in situations where the legal posture of a dispute is more solidly established than before it would get to court, mediation can be an extremely successful way of bringing parties together to see a collaborative solution to difficult problems.
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The availability of smartphones and other electronic gadgets made it so easy for patients to audio/video record any conversations or visits with a doctor, with or without consent. Medical doctors are becoming wary of this reality, more so after an adverse event.
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A written account is a doctors report of his visit or his consult. Because it is written by the doctor the report might not be completely objective. An audio/video record seems to be more objective, but by using just cerain parts of the conversation to formulate a complaint or in a law suit the truth might be twisted. Both the record or the written account can be used by the patient. The written account can be used by the doctor in defense of a criminal charge or complaint.
In the Netherlands it is prohibited to record a conversation without consent. Laws may differ in other countries, but some kind of privacy protection (not only for patients) is established in many countries.
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how lex certa as universal principle that derived from legality principle implemented in a case law? and what is the legal consequences if a regulation breached the standard of the lex certa principle?
is the lex certa principle only bind the legislator to make a obviously clear regulation or it's bind the judge to interpret the law as it vague written?
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A court (I am writing of the commn law tradition) may take the approach that it has to interpret the law in front of it, but there is a principle that in case of lack of clarity in a criminal statute it should be construed in favour of the accused -- see the Canadian Suprem Court case of R. v. McLaughlin (1980 (attached). 
A court may, especially when faced with a constitutional/human rights challenge to a statute "read it down" -- this is not restricted to vague statutes. Indeed a court would probably prefer to use the interpretation approach rather than reading down because the latter is actually changing the expressed (or maybe the apparent) will of the legislature.
Another approach may be to hold legislation invalid (unconstitutional) because of vagueness. Not that the constitution necessarily expressly say law must be clear, but because the court holds that a human right cannot be limited other than by law that is clear. Especially if the constitution says that a limitation on rights must be "by law".  See the Kenyan case of Coalition for Reform and Democracy v Republic of Kenya (2015) (attached) especially paragraphs 259-263 and 275-76.  
I have limited myself to a very few comments and those on the common law. Of course similar approaches are to be found in other systems and in the European Court. 
I am also attaching a section from an English Court of Appeal case  in 2004 (quoted in a  House of Lords case in 2005) which covers quite a lot of ground.
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which they are the cases and judgments
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Sorry, but I do not understand the question. I have never heard of "7 pronouncements of US Courts on Constitutional reform". 
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I am presently reviewing "dying declaration" cases decided by the Supreme Court of the Philippines. As a rule of evidence courts have given so much premium on "dying declarations" of victims. I am focusing on cases were the victim made the declarations just minutes prior to his demise or out of hospital declarations. Simply put, those cases where in the victim have not yet receive any medical interventions and subsequently died. I believe, however, that at that point significant physiologic changes are already in play that significantly affects the cognitive functions of the brain, specifically "recall of antecedent facts". Stated otherwise, a victim in shock can suffer acute brain dysfunction that affects the veracity of his "dying declarations."
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The dying declaration exception to the rule against hearsay permits out of court statements by a person to prove the matter they asserted out of court. At its narrowest the witness must be dead, that is generally no longer the case. They must however been in imminent fear of death. Their testimony is allowed because it is presumed the fear of death will make them more honest, whether for religious or practical grounds, and also because the dead witness is as unavailable as it gets. scholar.google.com or ssrn.com are good starting points. i do not yet know how to research through academia.edu or researchgate. this is a well known topic. u.s. federal rules of evidence fre are online for free as a pdf just sarch.
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If Adolph Hitler had presented evidence proving he was suffering from a mental illness that prevented him from knowing the difference between right and wrong at the times of the alleged violations of international war conventions and customs of war, could he have been found not guilty by reason of insanity? If so, what would the consequences be or what should they be?
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Mental illness would technically be a defence to a war crime since anyone suffering from it would have the valid defence of being unable to form the mens rea for any crime.
Adolf Hitler was however not insane and did not suffer from mental illness at the time the war crimes of the 3rd Reich were planned and started.  Had Hitler been mentally ill he would not have been able to maintain control of the state and the equally criminal individuals within it.   
The crimes of the 3rd Reich could not have been the product of mental illness since they were carried out collectively by thousands of individuals often acting in the absence of any traceable orders.  Apart from the rantings at his speeches and the sinister threats in Mein Kampf there is no written evidence that Hitler himself ordered many of the most bestial of crimes committed in this regimes name.  His Lieutenants were all very keen to please and executing the Fuhrer's wish was enough motivation to those with similar hideously distorted world views.
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Bankruptcy as a civil institution for the settlement of debts between creditors and debtors, the public interest should not be positioned as a goal to be achieved. but on the other hand the processes and mechanisms of bankruptcy tends to be "repressive" can indirectly harm the public interest. Here the state took a role in keeping the public interest with limiting or even eliminate the rights of the creditors or the debtor in bankruptcy. While we know that the state was not free from the influence of various interests in particular of the interests of capital owners.
So we need clear yardstick in incorporating consideration of the public interest in bankruptcy to provide a balanced protection of the interests of the public and private interests.
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Being a citizen of a country that in essence has defaulted, my response focuses on the macro-level of national economies.  I would say public interest  turns into a goal to be achieved in bankruptcy --and urgently--when despite all debt restructuring and austerity measures, an economy with its inherent sociocultural characteristics does not react in a formulaic way (contraction of debt, boost in productivity and development, lowering of unemployment), but instead goes deeper into recession following a downward spiral.  There are no one-size-fits all models despite the disciplinary crescento of neoliberalism evangelists; each country has its own particular features and indicators which dictate the need for a custom made model of consolidation and return to growth.  So the yardstick would be an assessment/diagnostic tool that needs to be developed and applied to national economies, with different scales and ratings that would depict in great accuracy the characteristics and the dynamics of each particular economy/society, and would serve as the springboard for the development of a unique strategy that can realistically produce results.
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The principle on rule of law is a fundamental one enshrined in the preamble of all the modern constitutions. The history of thought concerned with the concept of rule of law is quite rich. Despite this fact, the definition of the principle on rule of law is far from obvious and indisputable.
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Based on Venice Commission's recent report on the Rule of Law the "following definition by Tom Bingham covers most appropriately the essential
elements of the rule of law." 
“All persons and authorities within the state , whether public or private, should be bound by and entitled to the benefit of laws publicly made, taking effect (generally) in the future and publicly administered in the courts”.
As the authors of the report indicated there are very consensual elements covered by the term and these are: 1) Legality, including a transparent, accountable and democratic process for enacting law
(2) Legal certainty
(3) Prohibition of arbitrariness
(4) Access to justice before independent and impartial courts, including judicial review of administrative acts
(5) Respect for human rights
(6) Non-discrimination and equality before the law.
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In an addendum to a charter party contract the charterer was replaced with a third person. In the first clause parties agreed on this  "replacement". In the second and third clauses they agreed on transferring " liabilities" and " responsibilities" but there is no agreement on " rights" in the document. Does the word replacement convey the meaning of transferring rights as well? 
Thank you. 
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The solution is not legal but an honest appraisal of the objective and how to achieve it. Maybe counseling on taking responsibility for oneself. Value oriented camps, that introduce you to social service, open your eyes to real needs could help.
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There is a common logical fallacy that the crime statistics reflect in some way the morality of the society. STOP HERE AND THINK TWICE! The crime statistics reflect first to which extent the human behaviour may be considered to be criminal, i.e. these figures mirror the criminalization of certain activities. We can legalize prostitution or the retail sales of alcohol in Sweden and then statistics of crime will look different, not necessarily better. We can change the definition of the crimes; a broader definition will increase the statistics at least in the first period after the amendment. A narrower definition and a harder burden of proof for the prosecution will decrease the statistics, but attention not the criminality. The most fallacious part of the statement is to pass by the fact that an increase in the statistics can often reflect a more effective enforcement. The police and the other authorities have invested lots of public money in a betterment of the enforcement. This has nothing to do with the morality of the people living in that jurisdiction.
Think about the taxation for instance! One can define taxation as a very moral activity, it is after all about sharing and giving to the people in need, but also as an immoral activity because a person is dispossessed by his/he property, property which has been obtained completely in a legal manner. Of course that some crimes appear to be absolutely horrifying and undoubtedly immoral, but you as an outsider, as a second hand listener, you will never know the whole story. Therefore the biblical story is still wise: Don't throw any stones on nobody! You might be less innocent than that person.
Another short reflection about the truth and the search for truth and the idea that the ultimate truth is God! To me this statement is related with the first the biblical advice 'Don't throw stones!'. The socially constructed truth is always relative and it serves some common purposes. Panem et circenses, bread and circus/games, this is what it is served. Now-a-days the circus is more Hollywood constructed than live. The main idea is that you do not witness the truth, we are only told the 'truth' and if the truths being told fit with your frame of values, they are going to be accepted as reality. If they come in conflict with this frame of values, you will reject them and start to search about the 'real' truth and so on. It sounds strange but in order to provide justice and be impartial, you have to forget about your own cultural bias or moral bias and judge as to the law, not as to the morality.
The values of the society can not be alienated from the law, the law comes as a reflection of these values, but in the moment of becoming LAW, it becomes the main point of reference for the judge. The relation between law and moral values is a very complex one indeed.
I would like you to ponder a bit on the ideas of law and moral in society based on relative truths. What is the role of moral for the law maker or for the law enforcer? Do moral have any significance for a judge?
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In one sentence, law sets the minimum standard of human behavior while ethics sets maximum standard of human behavior. Law prescribes remedies and punishments for the violation of the standards it sets while ethics expects an ideal set of behavior of individuals concerned. The success of any law in a particular society depends upon its social acceptance in that society. Both law and morality influence each other. Some times law becomes instrumental to bring about social change e.g. social evils such as slavery has been eradicated to a great extent but sometimes a law becomes meaningless due to its persistent denial by the society as in the case of marriage dowry in India. Moral and ethical values can be instrumental in guiding the law making.
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What is the difference between these two terms in property law, "Right to possession" and "Right of possession"
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You must be careful when you refer to possession. At least in South American law possession is a variable completely different property. As well questions, I think the difference between the two questions is exactly the same.
Right to possession or right of possession is exactly the same just change the item used. Depends on how much you are to say one or the other definition. The point is that the right of possession is the same and explains:
Possession is the sum of the animus (intent to possess) + corpus.
The property is the sum of the animus + corpus + domain title.