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It is possible, using dominant system equality and freedom theory to map the structure of the market model in China before and after the fall of red socialism in 1991, and this raises the question, Can you see the structure of the 1991 flip from red socialism to non-democratic capitalism in China in terms of equality and freedom?
If you can see the structure of the flip please share it.
Respectfully yours;
Lucio
Note:
It is best stating the structure of red socialisl and non-democratic capitalism in terms of equality and freedom separately and then comparing them to see the context of the 1991 flip in those terms
Karl Marx's alienation concept
We know that the increasing frequency and severity of climate change phenomena while we are under dwarf green market based environmental pollution management will sooner or later lead to green Marxism challenges to dwarf green capitalism as a way to protect nature from capitalism and restore it.
We know the structure and meaning of red socialism and of green Marxism, but what about that of yellow Marxism or socio-environmental socialism or yellow manifesto, which raises the question; What is the structure and meaning of yellow Marxism/yellow socialism?
What do you think?
I think Yes, what do you think?
Please provide your own views on the question.
I think Yes, what do you think?
Please provide your own views on the question
Is alienation of proletarians from the capitalist system any distinguishable from alienation in the mixed economic system?
We claim ideas as if they were our own, but is it possible they belong to another class, another generation? Can you impose critical thinking on your own ideas?
Working on a theory of paradigm shift and flips that is linked to equality and freedom it is possible to see clearly the structure of markets, including deep social markets and red socialism/communism based markets….
This understanding helps us see the options available to markets in terms of flips or shifts when under specific sustainability gap pressures, and it allows us to see which option they would exercise if they have a choice before paradigm death/collapse like the one we saw in 1991 related to the fall of Karl Marx's world/Red socialism.
From this angle, knowing the difference between different types of markets, especially close ones, is very relevant.
Looking at the deep social markets and red socialism/communism based markets, raises the question, can you see what was or is the difference between deep social markets and red socialism/communism based markets?
If you think you can see it please share it or describe it so we can exchange ideas.
The fall of red socialism in 1991 led to the flip in those countries from social responsibility to economic responsibility as the paradigm shift from red socialism to economy friendly red socialism that Karl Marx probably had in mind in the long term did not materialize.
This flip of responsibilities in 1991 led to the coming of the new members of the capitalism family, cementing for once, the two current families of pure capitalism, democratic capitalism and non-democratic capitalism.
The flip from pure capitalism to red socialism since 1848 was a flip from economic responsibility to social responsibility, which shifted the loyalty structures found in pure capitalism.
The flip back from red socialism to pure capitalism in 1991 was a flip from social responsibility to economic responsibility, which maintained the loyalty structures as they were.
Had red socialism shifted to economy friendly red socialism, then the loyalties in those countries would have shifted to the same structure of loyalty in pure capitalism countries, and authoritarian parties and leaders would have fallen as a consequence of the paradigm shift.
Hence, the loyalty structures of a system may change or may remain the same as a result of paradigm flips up and paradigm flips back or due to paradigm shifts.
Therefore, there is a link between the direction of paradigm dynamics and loyalty structures in the systems affected by sustainability or responsibility pressures, so the question:
“Democratic capitalism and non-democratic capitalism: Do they have the same political and legal loyalty structure?”
What do you think? Can you see the political and legal loyalty structure in those two systems?
Feel free to share your views.
This is an academic question, not a political one.
If there are sustainability gaps, then there are market illusions as well as broken circular economic structures.
Hence there is a market illusion associated with red socialism/Karl Marx and with pure capitalism/Adam Smith as each of these models has specific sustainability gaps embedded in them.
Can you see these market illusions, the red socialism market illusion and the pure capitalism market illusion?
Please provide your own views on the question, I will appreciate that.
As a researcher in business and psychology I often get the feeling that many of my colleagues have a political leaning to the left and are clearly influenced by the ideas of post modernism and neo marxism. In sociology and social psychology this is in my view clearly evident. I have a deep fear that this is something that might have a negative effect on the field of social science. What are your views regarding this? Has the left totally taken over the social sciences? Is there still a room for scientist of divergent ideas or are they more or less kept down by the majority? Your views please?
Just think about it, red socialism came under extreme capitalism pressure that was forcing it to either adapt or evolve, pressure that led to adapting as new capitalist markets since 1991.....
Those in favor of adaptation in 1991 had the advantage that there was no traditional market paradigm shift knowledge gap as micro and macroeconomic knowledge is a given so they knew what to do and the paradigm flip took place from socially friendly, but economic unfriendly red socialism to socially unfriendly, but economic friendly capitalism.....
Those in favor of evolving had the disadvantage in 1991 as there was a deep red market paradigm shift knowledge gap as red micro and red macroeconomic knowledge did not exist so they did not know what to do and let the paradigm flip go unchallenged.....so the shift needed to keep Karl Marx's dream alive did not take place, the shift from socially friendly, but economy unfriendly red socialism to the socially and economy friendly red socialism or red market model.
The ideas shared above raise the question, Is the red market paradigm shift knowledge gap behind the flip from red socialism to pure capitalism? I think yes, what do you think?
Look at The Machine of Karl Marx. Turn to Nature of the Firm of Ronald Coase. There, stop and reflect on boundary of the firm. What do you draw out?
I've been spending a great deal of time studying the topic of capitalist exploitation via increase in intensity and I'm having issues with the mathematics behind it.
Now, in the paper Duration, Intensity and Productivity of Labour and the Distinction between Absolute and Relative Surplus-value by Stavros Mavroudeas there is a formula which defines the how a total working time in a day from all workers is dealt out.
T= V+S
Where T is our total labor hours from all workers that day, V is the value paid out to workers and S is the surplus value gained from that working day.
Now total labor hours T can be broken down to the number of laborors that day and the hours each laborer works. mathematically this is:
T=hl
where h is the number of hours worked by each worker and l is the number of laborers working,it follows our identity is now:
lh=S+V
dividing both sides by lh.
1=(S+V)/lh
this negates what was taught by Dr. Stephen Resnick that capital intensity is:
I=(SV+V)/lh
where there is possibility of varying I, by Mavroudeas formulation of the problem this is impossible.
Based on this simple exercise, does exploitation via "speed up" or increase in labor intensity really exist?
This question was originally directed to the project by e. ahmet Tonak, Anwar Shaikh, and Sungur Savran: Empirical Measurement of Labour Theory Of Value Categories. But I think my question has a more general significance and I changed the title of my question. The following question is the original one.
Are you thinking that prices of commodities are proportional to their embodied labor? If not, what are you planning to do?
After the long debate on transformation problem, it seems useless efforts to attempt to prove that labor contents are proportional to prices. Single system interpretation is an abandonment of labor theory of value. You may explain exploitation but it is not already a theory of value. You may dress a table of national accounting on the base of labor hours, but you cannot explain how and why such and such things happened in the real capitalist economy. You may have much more important things to do in understanding capitalism.
If you want to make reconciliation with Marx's thought, the following comment by Lyudmila Vashina on Rubin's book would be suggesting:
- Rubin came to the following conclusion: the main part of Marx's theory of value is not the proof that the value of a commodity depends on the quantity of labor expended in the production of the commodity, but the understanding that production relations of commodity capitalist economy inevitably take the value form and the labour is expressed only in values. It is wrong to think, Rubin insists, that, starting from value phenomena of things, Marx arrived as a result of analysis to the conclusion that the common thing was labor as a result of analysis to the conclusion (This kind of problem setting was seen among precursors of Marx). According to Rubins's interpretation, Marx's process of thinking was essentially the converse. The "private" labor of individual producers can be transformed into social labor only through the value of their labor products. (Excerpt from Lyudmina Vashina's paper Rubin and his manuscript which was attached to Rubins's book Outline of Monetary Theory of Marx (2011) in Russian edited by her; my translation from the Japanese translation by Susumu Takenaga)
Can we measure the time spend to realize anything we want it enormously, by quantifying the time between the positive and the negative ideas? what do you think?
Just think about it…
Karl Marx was aware that production price equal to cost-price plus profit(KP = C + i) and he was not fan of where the profits were going and he knew that producing at an economic loss in the long-term is not a good plan, but a 3 stages development plan to achieve socialism at a profit or socially friendly capitalism in the long term may have crossed his head…..
Marx would not have encouraged a long-term red socialism production program at an economic loss, I think….Was somehow Karl Marx proposing red markets or socially friendly capitalism as the long term road to socialism, not the red socialism program at a loss implemented?....
For Karl Marx, C = Cost price and i = average profit
See if production price is KP = C + i , and
if C = SM + ECM, where SM = Social margin and ECM = economic margin.
Then;
KP = SM + ECM + i
The three stages of development to socialism at a profit can be stated as follows:
a) Stage 1: Red socialism as implemented
KP1 = SM
b) Stage 2: Red socialism at zero profit
KP2 = SM + ECM
c) Stage 3: Red socialism at a profit or red markets
KP3 = SM + ECM + i
With the understanding of capitalism Karl Marx had, this thought above would be consistent with his thought if he only had problems with where the profits were going and he wanted to redirect them to the state, not to private individuals.
Notice that since ECM + i = P = The traditional market price, then
KP3 = SM + P
The formula above is the formula of a red market or socially friendly capitalism or red socialism at a profit.
Was this what Karl Marx actually proposed?....That is where former red socialist countries including China arrived in 1991 when they shifted from red socialism to red markets….What do you think?
There seems to be production schedules for former red socialist countries and information about planned economy/planned production, but what about the cost of those production schedules....
Were production levels determined by the social cost of production...the lower the social cost of production we can plan more production and at higher social costs we have to schedule lower production goals.....
But these two cases then would lead to inneficient levels of production as it would be either above or below desired production goals....the efficient level of production would be the one where production levels are determined by the actual social cost of production.....
Were production schedules kept at the social cost of production in red socialism systems?
Could a high Kaleckian degree of monopoly make possible for a high Marxian surplus value? which is then realized as a high profit rate? What about interest rate mark-ups and their effect on the share of profits?
hello, please I need to begin a work on the perspective of Karl Marx on social class and health inequalities. however I need ideas and useful articles cos I am confused of how to link this theory to health practice and inequalities.
thanks.
I am doing research on Lujo Brentano and I need some info about the relation between Lujo and Karl Marx. "Lujo Brentano was the nephew of the writers Clemens Brentano and Bettina von Arnim, two major figures in the romantic movement in German literature, and the brother of Franz Brentano, a philosopher whose students included Edmund Husserl, Alexius Meinong and Sigmund Freud, among others".
I am a researcher investigating the relationship between Marx and Fichte's bodies of work.
What is the real content of vulgarization, when they claim that J.S. Mill vulgarized Ricardo's teachings? In what sense is he blamed to have opened the way to neoclassical economics?
Béla Balassa once wrote in his paper "Karl Marx and John Stuart Mill" (Weltwirtschaftliches Archiv, Bd. 83, (1959), pp. 147-165):
- Marx's treatment of John Stuart Mill is one of the great puzzles of history of economic thought. Reading Marx (and his followers) one gets the impression that Mill was an insignificant figure whose writings exemplify the "decline" of Ricardian economics. Whenever Marx mentions Mill's name (which does not happen very frequently) he v\never forgets to add some derogatory comment. (p.147)
In another paper (John Stuart Mill and the Law of Markets, The Quarterly Journal of Economics Vol. 73, No. 2 (May, 1959), pp. 263-274) he wrote:
- For present-day economists [Mill] represents a "half-way house" between Ricardo and Marshall; for Marxists he is the apologist personified, sharing the responsibility with many others for the "decline" of Ricardian economics.(p.263)
I wonder why John Stuart Mill was so undully ill-treated by Marx and Marxain economists.
To solve the crisis, wouldn't it be better to unite the forces instead of divide them?
How can the Left Catalan Parties forget this socialist principle?