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会议征稿:第十届金融创新与经济发展国际学术会议(ICFIED 2025)
Call for papers: As an annual conference held successfully in the past 9 years, 2025 10th International Conference on Financial Innovation and Economic Development (ICFIED 2025) will be held in Tianjin on January 03-05, 2025.
Conference website(English): https://ais.cn/u/F7FNVz
重要信息
大会官网(投稿网址):https://ais.cn/u/F7FNVz
大会时间:2025年1月3-5日
大会地点:中国-天津
提交检索:CPCI,CNKI,Google Scholar
见刊出版:会议论文集出版(快见刊)
*含online线上见刊链接、纸质刊物、DOI号、ISSN(刊号)、ISBN(书号)、Vol(卷号)
主办单位:天津财经大学
会议详情
第十届金融创新与经济发展国际学术会议(ICFIED 2025)将于2025年1月3-5日在中国天津市召开。会议主要围绕金融创新与经济发展等研究领域展开讨论。会议旨在为从事金融创新与经济发展研究的专家学者、工程技术人员、技术研发人员提供一个共享科研成果和前沿技术,了解学术发展趋势,拓宽研究思路,加强学术研究和探讨,促进学术成果产业化合作的平台。大会诚邀国内外高校、科研机构专家、学者,企业界人士及其他相关人员参会交流。
征稿主题(包括但不限于)
经济学理论
微观/宏观经济学
企业管理
项目管理
市场营销
人力资源管理
财务管理
运营管理
战略管理
信息管理
组织行为学
贸易经济学
计量经济学
金融创新经济发展
金融学
货币银行学
证券投资学
公司金融学
税收学
......
论文出版
所有的投稿都必须经过2-3位组委会专家审稿,经过严格的审稿之后,最终所录用的论文将以会议论文集的形式在Atlantis Press旗下的AEBMR-Advances in Economics, Business and Management Research (ISSN: 2352-5428)出版,见刊后将提交至CPCI、知网CNKI、谷歌学术进行检索。目前该出版社见刊周期短,知网&谷歌学术检索快速稳定。
参会方式
1、作者参会:一篇录用且缴费的文章允许一名作者免费参会;
2、主讲嘉宾:申请主题演讲,由组委会审核;
3、口头演讲:申请口头报告,时间为10分钟;
4、海报展示:申请海报展示,A1尺寸;
5、听众参会:不投稿仅参会,也可申请演讲及展示。
6、报名参会:https://ais.cn/u/F7FNVz
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Interested to attend online
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Emerging economies have poor infrastructure and low saving rates. They need investment in physical capital to improve their performance. Foreign savings should flow into developing countries filling this gap. Private and public moneys diverge in several instruments. They vary between equity coming from firms or lending from international institutions. Could you help me to scrutinize literature on this matter?
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Yes, if they are sustained and well managed.
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The Credit Guarantee Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) was launched in 2000 by the Government of India (GOI) and Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) as a trust to implement the credit guarantee scheme (CGS) for MSEs with an initial corpus of Rs. 2500 Cr. More contributions were made over the years, and the corpus amount stood at Rs. 7500 Cr as of March 2020. The purpose is to accelerate credit to the sector that would not be in a position to offer a third-party guarantee or collateral required by the lender. As per the International Finance Corporation, the total financing demand of the Indian MSME sector is around Rs.325lakh crore that comprised of entrepreneurs contribution of Rs.46lakh crore and estimated demand of Rs.279lakh crore. The enormity of the financial challenge is clear from the fact that the credit gap is close to twice the actual outstanding amount of formal credit extended to the sector. (Raju, 2019)
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In my opinion, insurance of the distinct links in the supply chain of micro and small manufacturing enterprises can be a better option than a guarantee scheme. Insurance provides a more comprehensive coverage for potential risks and losses, whereas guarantee schemes may have limitations and exclusions. Additionally, insurance can help to mitigate the financial impact of unexpected events, such as natural disasters or market fluctuations. However, it ultimately depends on the specific needs and circumstances of each enterprise.
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Dear RG community,
I have been studying the impact of the political, economic and financial risk indices on stock market returns, so I need monthly data (or quarterly or annual) from ICRG Database political, financial, and economic risk ratings from 1984 to 2020 for all countries?
Table 3B: Political Risk Points by Component, 1984-2020
Table 4B: Financial Risk Points by Component, 1984-2020
Table 5B: Economic Risk Points by Component, 1984-2020
Unfortunately, me or my organization do not have access to the (ICRG) database, so I would greatly appreciate your help in obtaining this data, if you can.
Just in case of you may need, my e-mail is ademboyukaslan@gmail.com
Thank you in advance.
Best regards,
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I hope to figure out any access to same data.
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This discussion will focus on research that is related to FDI. It will primarily be a discussion and a sharing platform of Resources and Knowledge for the research on FDI. It is with collaborating that we can improve upon the quality of the research on FDI. I will be sharing my resources here so that the scholarship can benefit from it and a lot of time and effort that is put into searching for resources and knowledge about the research is saved here.
For The Sake of Research
  • Bilateral FDI flows of the World Economies.
The source of the data is UNCTAD.
  • Journal of Finance in SCOPUS.
Ranking and metrics of Journals of Finance in SCOPUS
  • Country Wise Bilateral FDI Datasets
| 2001-12 |
|INFLOWS & OUTFLOWS|
|INSTOCK & OUTSTOCK|
Source UNCTAD
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Syed Azher Mehdi Thank you very much i suggest also this Data base it is very useful for FDI and Multinational companies by sector , mother company and affiliates by countries and region ( bilateral and aggregate ) by International Trade Centre.
for Middle east data this portal is very useful
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Finance
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  • Fintech.
  • Financial Economics.
  • Corporate finance.
  • Behavioural Finance.
  • Financial Markets.
  • Cognitive Behaviour in Renewable Energy.
  • Determinants of Credit risk in Banks.
  • Impact of the Macroeconomic variables on the Non-performing loans.
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In recent times, there have been many topics on how artificial intelligence can be used in finance: automatic financial advice, new tools, more accurate prediction, automatic trading, data management, poverty alleviation, new ethical dilemmas.
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Dear Dr László Vértesy, I think algorithm based trading ( share, foreign exchange and commodity) has huge scope for AI. Already we are into it. Initially these will be premium services..... meaning will help rich becoming richer ànd poor becoming poorer. Warm regards Yoganandan G
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Can you please suggest to me an article or a book that talks about the history of IPOs and/or the characteristic of conducting an IPO in the world (in different countries or main countries). Thank you in advance.
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Thank you dear researchers for your contribution.
I already studied before the book you suggested me. I am looking for some other source of information aside that one. Up until now I still didn't find a solution, it you're interested I'll let you know if I do.
With regards.
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The Data is for Academic Research
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Thanks
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I am currently assisting on a research on cross border capital flows.
A common problem seems to be that both the acquisition of assets and valuation effects determine the cross border asset holdings as , for example, reported in the CPIS data. Hobza and Zeugner use the BoP statistics on portfolio investments to derive valuation effects on portfolio debt and equity (change in asset holdings minus acquisitions) (2014).
I am wondering if the valuation effect could also be estimated because I do not only want to distinguish between portfolio debt and equity but also between different types of instruments.
For instance, between different debt maturities.
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Valuation effects depend on inflation, exchange rates and liquidity (on how tightly held the asset is).Different financial markets have different levels of liquidity.
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In my investigation of the triangular relationship between international sales, international ownership and the riskiness of a stock I am looking for a database that could provide the % of foreign ownership of shares from DAX and MDAX companies between 2003-2019.
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It's around 42 per cent in average currently. More Dax than M-Dax. Quote me if you need a reference.
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The negative sign of outflows means the disinvestments by domestic investors in foreign economies, so actually it is inflows because domestic investors are pulling money from abroad to local economy, in contrast, the negative sign of inflows means the foreign investors are pulling money from the local economy to their home abroad, so it is actually outflows. IMF uses this method which is known as "BPM6" to report capital flows. Bear in mind that the outflows of FDI, FPI and other investments are reported as an assets and the inflows of FDI, FPI and other investments are reported as liabilities. With that being said, how could we calculate the net capital inflows and outflows? For more clarification I have added an attachment of Argentina's capital flows for the year 2000, Argentina had positive FDI and FPI outflows in that year for quarter 1, but other investment outflows were negative, so that means that other investment outflows are actually inflows because of the investments repatriated home by domestic investors. In the same period, in terms of inflows, Argentina had positive FDI and FPI inflows, but the other investments inflows were negative, so the other investments inflows are actually outflows. Therefore, in order to calculate net capital inflows we add the absolute value of the other investment outflows to the positive values of FDI and FPI inflows(|-other investments outflows|+FDI inflows+FPI inflows). The same thing for net capital outflows, we add the absolute value of negative other investment inflows to the positive values of FDI and FPI outflows (|-other investments inflows|+FDI outflows+FPI outflows).
Am I right???
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I think IMF BPM6 is more in line with definition of asset and liability in accounting. An inflow should be a liability to the host country From the perspective of creditor/investor who is entitled to a return while outflow of investment is an asset.
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There is a really strange phenomenon in Chinese stock markets. When the regulation institution decides to get some new companies listed (it is noteworthy that IPO has to get permission from Securities Regulatory Commission in China), the stock market drastic falls and the Chinese investors sell out their stocks crazily.
Some argue that more stocks listed means that more money is needed by the market, but the supply is constant in the short term. So the stock price falls. But I don't think it explains well what we observe.
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This is an interesting phenomenon. I hope by now (2020), the situation has much improved.
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I started collecting data for commercial banks in Asia during the period of 1990-2015 via Orbis Bank Focus (previously known as Bankscope). However, at the moment,  Orbis Bank Focus can only provide up to 5 years of latest data for some banks (for most of banks, there are only 3 years of available data). Could you please suggest other databases that I can find a longer time span of financial data?
Previously, Bankscope is able to provide long time- series data; but by the end of 2016, it is no longer to access to Bankscope as it changed to Orbis Bank Focus. So if there is anyone who has the data from Bankscope for the Asian sample of commercial banks, could you please share the data with me?
Thanks very much for your help!
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SNL Financial (S&P Global Market Intelligence) would also be a good alternative.
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Good morning,
I am working on bank quaterly data obtained from Bloomberg. I wonder wether there is no error in the estimation of Net Income and ROA. For example, we get a negative ROA albeit the amounts of Net Income and Total assets are positive.
As a remember, ROA=Net Income/Total assets.
Can somebody give me some explanation for me to get rid of that issue?
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One way of getting about validating the data and calculations is to go to the definition of each variable - what they include and how they add, subtract, multiply or divide. Whether it is for a bank or industrial firms, a negative number for RoA is possible when the net income is negative. Asset values are either positive or zero, where a zero asset value with a positive net income is a fairly meaningless number. Technically, it is infinite when a positive number is divided by zero. In business terms, this is probably the "holy grail" (in jest of course) for managers where they earn something out of nothing.
I tend not to rely on database calculations when there are raw data that are available. Provided the raw data are presented in a consistent manner, I would prefer to show them and show how the results of the calculations are derived from the raw data.  
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Reducing long-term investments for short-term purposes has been a subject of debate in the Accounting and Finance literature. According to a recent study, by Professor Kruft (from City University London) and others, "increased reporting frequency is associated with an economically large decline in investments". This is also consistent with some previous studies, such as the paper of Bhojraj and Libby, 2005, on The Accounting Review, although the relationship is conditional on what they called "cash flow conflict". It has been previously argued, on the other hand, that frequent financial reporting can help reduce the information asymmetry, which emanates from the agency theory, by enhancing information transparency (this argument is empirically supported, for example, by the article of Fu et al., 2012 on Journal of Accounting and Economics).
Given the role of frequent financial reporting in reducing information gaps between owners and managers and, at the same time, in inducing managerial short-termism, how these competing views can be matched, in your opinion? 
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Well, the right question should be, whether those two aspects are in opposition indeed. You need some solid theory justifying the supremacy of long-term oriented investments over short-term investments, but I guess you will not succeed. There is always conflict between return and risk; long-term investments shall bringer higher returns to compensate increased risk. The investment decision is influenced by risk attitude of managers (those risk-averse will probably tend to prefer short-termism view). However, the stakeholders in company (investors, creditors, etc.) may have also impact on the horizon of investmens. Some may prefer longer period with higher returns (accepting higher risk), other may require better liquidity and thus shorter investments with lower returns and lower risk. Consequently, frequent interim reporting may be a transmitter balancing agency costs and investment horizon of the entity's stakeholders. Whether there is conflict or concord between agency problem and managerial short-termism under frequent interim reporting will differ across companies and entity-specific determinants shall be examined to detect the relation.    
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Research shows that most countries manage their exchange rates, even those that declare a floating regime to the IMF. What is the advantage/disadvantage, outside of the obvious fact that exporters benefit from a lower exchange rate.
There must be more to it!
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Most countries, especially developing countries fear free float generally because of their relatively low level of productivity, meaning that the terms of trade is steeped against them. More so, even countries with high level of productivity and sound fundamental macreoeconomy may still intervene with market forces, due largely to technical and psychological factors (animal spirit), that can significant disparity between real exchange rate and it's intrinsic value, vis a vis other currency. Countries often opt for managed or dirty float in order to maintain their exchange rate at the desired level among other things. One major disadvantage is that dirty float enables policy makers to play the Ostrich. It might also scare trading partners away, making the domestic economy to suffer. 
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I am looking for more specific questions for my master thesis about Intraday Money Market, that arises from the increased demands for intraday liquidity managements, following the recent implementations of Real-time Gross Settlement Systems across nations, especially in the aftermath of the recent financial crisis.
That is an intraday game played between central bank and commercial banks for the purpose of making payments, in combination with other goals such as monetary policy, overnight interbank rate, profit maximizing, welfare maximizing, ... etc. How should it be socially efficiently organised?
Grateful to listen to advices/suggestions. Thank you!
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One controversial statement comes from Warren Mosler: "An interbank market serves no public purpose" (p. 103) from the attached publication. Mosler is one of the founders of Modern Monetary Theory, but not an academic - don't be fooled by the plain language, he knows quite a lot about actual monetary operations (reserve accounting).
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I use daily closing values of the Philippine stock exchange index and the Implied Federal Funds Rate using Federal Funds Futures. The problem is US and Philippines have different business calendars due to various holidays, thus leading to gaps in my data. 
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Dear Prof. Manzaranes and others,
                                                               Few data points should not matter whether economically or statistically even if markets are incomplete. You can refer to Mallick (2015), Mallick, Hamburger, Mallick (2016) on www.researchgate.net/Soumitra K Mallick site.
Soumitra K Mallick
for
Soumitra K Mallick, Nick Hamburger, Sandipan Mallick
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I am looking at the role of export duration on the share of each methods of payments (open account, cash-in advance). It seems that both dependent variable (share of OA and CIA) and explanatory variable (duration of each export spell at the product-level) have reverse causality problem. To avoid the endogeneity problems linked to reverse causality between share of methods of finance and duration of exports, I am planning to use a two-stage approach to investigate the determinants of export duration in a first stage, and export duration and share of each payment method in a second stage. I am looking for a suitable instrument for the export duration in the first stage regression. Do you have any suggestion for that? 
Best wishes,
Kemal Turkcan
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You use lags of export variable
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I am doing a investment-cash flow sensitivity study for an emerging country. I wonder if i need to control this relation for inflation (because the country faces high inflation rates in several years.If yes, how can I control inflation? should I deflate capital spending and cash flow or should I use inflation as a control variable? Similar question for cost of capital. Do i need to control it? In my model, beta is already a control variable. I found no related paper that controls for these variables. Thank you so much
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You control inflation because inflation is related to cash-flow
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When assessing the drivers of capital flows, many studies first divide capital flows by nominal GDP (see Ahmed/Zlate 2014, Baek 2006). In my own research, I want to compare the dynamics of US interest rates with capital flows to emerging markets in a descriptive analysis. Is it important to divide capital flows by GDP in this case? If yes, why?
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Because of the normalization you get rid off the size: effect Larger countries (in terms of GDP or population) receive higher capital inflows. By looking at relative variables, you can focus on other determinants (long run growth potential, availability of an educated labor force or whatever).
The other issue is that capital flows might be nonstationary. By dividing through GDP, you will probably produce a more stationary variable.
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Hi fellow researches,
For a descriptive analysis on capital flows and interest rate differentials, I construct a variable for net private capital flows from quarterly BOPS data. However, of course not all quarterly observations include all categories of flows (e.g. for certain quarters, portfolio flows are missing completely). How do you tend to deal with these incomplete observations? Do you use them while constructing your series or do you apply a certain rule (e.g. include only if at least net fdi, net portfolio and net other are available)?
Thanks very much in advance!
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include net amount,or apply interpolation and find an approx missing amount
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international finance
management students
pedagogical innovation
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Also possibly consider a flipped classroom approach.
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Sovereign ceiling ratings mean that no private firm from a certain country can receive a higher grade than its own sovereign. The logic of the ceiling entails that no good guy can be born in a bad family. In practice this should result in a reward to “bad” firms in the developed countries and a punishment to “good” companies from the developing nations. What do you think about it? Comments, literature and critics are welcomed.
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Thanks Karen.
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i need to know whether the dollarization if implemented in a country, what would be its impacts on the banking sector loans and deposits
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The paper attached discusses the effects of dollarization on Ecuador`s banking system, and the role these effects played in forcing Ecuador`s January-2000 decision fully to dollarize its economy.
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In your opinion ,  give the reasons and some solutions to decrease the financial deficit of government budget.
Best Regards,
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as to method to reduce it there are essentially two sets of instruments: those reducing spending (quite unpopular with voters and civil service workers) and those increasing revenues.
Increasing revenues might be reached by taxing residents (individual and businesses and taxing income, value added or assets....) or non residents (import taxes). Also a more efficient way to collect taxes reducing tax elusion and evasion is a classic deficit-reducing instrument.
Reducing spending might be done by reducing cost of public procurement, selling assets (businesses, real estate,... natural resouces concession,...) reducing welfare service to population (free health care, free education, subsidied pensions...)
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The Worldwide Governance Indicators are: 
Voice and Accountability
Political Stability and Absence of Violence/Terrorism
Government Effectiveness
Regulatory Quality
Rule of Law
Control of Corruption
However, instead of observing the percentile rank for Brazil, for the purposes of my research, I need the data concerning the individual ranking of each of the 26 Federal States and the Federal District.
Any ideas?
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Unfortunately I am not aware of such indicators. But would be interested to know and compare those with the South Asian countries' indicators.
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I know that it can be found in OECD publication "Consumption tax trends", but it's unavailable for download. Other source is PWC publication "Worldwide tax summaries corporative", but it's large several thousand pages and it would be needed so much time to extract data. IMF database doesn't have possibility to download files into .xls(or .xlst) format. 
Except these publications, when I enter a search query "VAT, excise duties and customs duties rates for world countries" in Google Search, I get a lot of results, but I don't know which source, except these three mentioned, is reliable.
Any solution would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks.
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For starters, by using the simple-minded phrase "a table," you seem not to grasp the breadth, depth, complexity, and scope of the question you're asking. There are more than 200 countries in the world. Even within a single country, "excise duties" and "customs duties tax rates" are likely to vary according to the good in question and, in some cases, by the quantity of that good. So, OF COURSE, any authoritative listing is going to be HUGE. What else would you expect?
You've asked a hugely complex question. Answering it is going to take a LOT of time and effort. There are no shortcuts. No one who takes the time to compile such a database is going to make it available for download for free. Would you?
Good grief, man.
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I seek to investigate the economic  motives and benefits behind  the adoption of IPSAS.  
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Be cautious - the link above states that Governments that already apply full accrual accounting standards and apply accounting standards that are broadly consistent with IPSAS requirements includes Canada. We do not apply full accrual accounting in Canada, although we do follow our own standard similar to that.
We have a body called the Financial Reporting and Assurance Standards of Canada, and within that a body called The Public Sector Accounting Board (PSAB). It  was created to serve the public interest by establishing accounting standards for the public sector. PSAB also provides guidance for financial and other performance information reported by the public sector.
The Accounting Standards Oversight Council (AcSOC) oversees the activities of PSAB and ensures they follow their rigorous due process. AcSOC appoints PSAB members and provides input on strategy and priorities. AcSOC also assesses and reports to the public on the performance of PSAB.
Moving Canada to a full accrual accounting basis (much as the Auditor General of Canada would love it) is fraught with many difficulties. Perhaps one of our Australian collagues can talk to the difficulties they experienced in experiementing with full accrual accounting. Canada operates on a modified cash management basis in its public sector to ensure that the cherished principle of "every dollar spent on the public's behalf is duly examined and voted on in the house of commons by elected representatives"
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Seeks both international financial reporting standards and professional organizations Foundation, to achieve international harmony in practice, when the application of accounting standards.
This consensus; achieves many of the objectives it seeks to achieve the International Federation of Accountants, which represented in the public interest. Taking into account; environmental requirements which use those standards
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First, adopt IFRS, and after, develop and learn about international practices. IFRS is a new language. To talk using this language, you have to practice.
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I am going to estimate the export supply function. Please can someone explain me why we include the cost variable (wages or other input cost) as supply side determinant in export supply function. What is economic rational by including this variable and how theoretically we related these two variables. Please explain with possible references. I am very thankful
Thanks and best regards
Sayed Irshad Hussain
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Input costs, typically proxied by the manufacturing wage are important for export supply functions. Have a look at Abbott & De Vita (2002) in Applied Economics, 34, 1025-1032. This paper unpacks the theory behind your question based on Riedel (1988)  modelling approach (see Economic Journal, 98, 138-48). I hope you find this useful.
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In the modern era, whether it is time of economic recession or in a good- going financial stability, almost all companies have resorted to cost cutting. In the context of cost cutting, outsourcing plays a pivotal role in the management strategy.Generally the services outsourced are those that are general or supportive in the parent company. Finance and accounting is a service that is outsourced more nowadays. Small as well medium companies prefer doing these tasks themselves as they have a separate department for all these supportive functions. But various companies have started opting for accounting and finance  outsourcing just as a measure of saving on the in-house account management costs. Today, more and more companies are outsourcing even accounting activities so they can shift time, money and other resources to strategic business activities, instead of focusing on administrative functions. Outsourcing is a smart and viable option to optimize business processes and ultimately improve the bottom line. My concern is that how India can become a perfect destination for  finance and accounting outsourcing services.
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Greetings.
I am attaching a link to understand the challenges in FAO.
In my opinion Indian Accounting and Finance education is another major challenge that we need to address to make India a perfect destination. We need professional approach to FAO.
Regards
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US Dollar
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How to calculate the long run causality between exports and economic growth?
i am working on export-led growth policy for Pakistan. For short run causal link i have used the VAR model but i am little confused how the calculate the long run causality. please guide me in this matter  
thanks and best regards
Sayed Irshad Hussain 
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For short term causal relationships , the best method is the Granger Causality Test. 
For Long term equilibrium relationship, the  best method is VAR . But first you need to run  unit root tests in order to check on the performing conditions. 
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Malaysian Islamic Banking early establish than Indonesia. It cause from Internal factors or external factors?
i'm Master candidate for islamic economic.
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Dear Shairazi, before we look at the popularity of the product, we have to look at the components of the community in those two countries. Are they the same. About 1 million of of the population in Malaysia work as gorvernment servants. And they are provided with home and vehicle and computer financing. So this could lead to the low demand of profit and loss sharing financing.
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How would you value the financial reporting quality of cross-listed firms?
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Dear Ekow Yamoah. One way of evaluating financial reporting quality is by adapting value relevance methodology. For example Ohlson (1995) looks at the association between market value of firm and book value of assets plus earnings.
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While various variables like currency exchange rate, labour input etc make it difficult to distinguish between countries in term of construction productivity, is it still possible to get a ranked synopsis?
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Dear Angus,
                      I cannot tell you specifically about housing but I can tell you that if you are looking for an understanding of Ricardian Rent Theory which affects the housing market so much you can take a look at my paper on Econometric Society Conferences on my Rg page and also on www.citations.springer.com/item?doi=10.1007/PL00004119 where I have provided the factorisation necessary for valuing networks using the opportunity cost of rent. I guess you can reverse the process and the calculation. I hope it helps. Just as a theoretical argument David Ricardo also did not value rent in terms of Real Estate perse but in terms of Commerce or Corn. SKM QC
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The financial sector development programme is based on financial inclusion, depth, and stability criteria. What variable should be considered as dependant and what as independent? What to do if Data relating to non bank financial institution such as pension fund and insurances are not revealed by the national statistic? What about Remittance transaction?
I have got a background in financial management and accounting. I came across some econometrics models like  Autoregressive Distributed Lag model (ARDL) test and Error Corretion Model (ECM) but I am not familiar with them. I would like to know if regression models like ANOVA, OLS, mutliple regression may help to find the impact of the programme on national savings.
Thank you for your help
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You can take a look at the first chapter essentially of our joint research at
planningcommission.nic.in./reports/sereport/ser/scoiwel.pdf especially Chapter 1 which had been mainly put together by Prof. Anjan Chakraborty of Calcutta University for a good discussion on Financial Deepening measures. SKM
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It is true that the Euro zone is more a political than an economic project. It is true that the leaving of Greece would send an unwanted signal to the markets and would seriously undermine the credibility of the single European currency. But what is the alternative? If Greece remains in the European Monetary Union, it means that all its members will continue to pay for Greeks' reluctance to reform their inefficient economy. Even with the highest degree of tolerance, Europe cannot continue to tolerate the Greek madness. At least voters in creditor countries will not allow it. What awaits Greece if it leaves the Euro zone? High inflation, poverty, lack of access to international financing, in other words - a return to the times before the country's membership in the EU. And in these times the standard of living in Bulgaria was higher than that of our southern neighbor. 
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No good can be seen for Greece over  the short run and in the midterm...
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In the current sovereign debt market landscape, the portion of government securities on the national financing are so significant that may affect the respective countries' economy. Nonetheless, debt management offices are normally less capable in managing the associated risks of the portfolio or cash flow (in comparisons to the investment banks, for instance). In this regards, hedging strategy may help the countries to mitigate the risks and manage optimum portfolio risks. The question is: to what extent the derivative market/instrument can assist the government to manage the risks? Especially, what types of derivatives are normally being utilised? What type of risk management strategy is normally employed?
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Hi!
Interest rate swaps are commonly used to try to lower the interest charges payed by the relevant state. But if the anticipation of the managing team is wrong (for example the general level of interest rates rise instead of dropping) the results may be worse. You have just in this case to undertake a new swap to invert your position, but you may loose some basis points.Swaptions may be also at stake, and many others specific derivative instruments that you will find on the OTC market with a counterparty risk.
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In my study, I hypothesize that the amount of research produced by a specific country is a function of the country's population size and GDP. This stems from the thought that the higher the number of people, the higher might be the number of researchers in the country and that the higher the GDP, the higher will be the amount of money directed for research. Although my results validate this hypothesis, I can't find publications supporting (or not) this theory and as such my discussion is still very poor. Any help is welcome and will be acknowledged.
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Research has little to do with population growth, however, it is definitely positively related with economic growth. High income countries of West Europe, Japan, and the USA are some of the examples of this phenomenon. Economic growth encourages research, fostering technological development  that in turn increases labor productivity, which eventually triggers further economic growth. Yes, economic growth and technological development complement each other. 
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I want to estimate product quality follow JIE 2015 paper"Input-trade liberalization, export prices and quality upgrading", one sentence in this paper is " We rely on
Chinese elasticities of substitution at the HS3 product level estimated
by Broda et al. (2006). ", but i can't find HS3 product level data in Broda et al. (2006),where the data is more aggerate.
I sent an email to the authors of this paper some days age,  but i do not get any response untill now.
Is there anybody know how to get these data ?
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who knows  whether there is updated data for elasticities? 
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The derivative market is supposed to support the real economy but how come the notional amount is so large? Does it related to the low interest rate in US, huge CDOs or shadow banking problems? Thank you.
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Doomsday explanation:
In simple terms it's a bubble. And it will burst at some point, that will be a black day. There are no assets around the world or money mass that can accommodate the capital flow when it will happen. Until that day, many people make nice money by investing in them, however, they need to reinvest there, as there are no other assets able to replace them. So they have nice "derivatives" as financial assets in their balance sheet, and, as leverage is highly common, they have real debt on the other side.
God help us all.
Moderate explanation:
Capitals are pushed always towards high returns. As consumption growth is minimal, regular investments provide little returns. So capitals are now "stored" in "financial assets" that can be inflated because of high demand. As financial assets can be created without limit, as long as there is a demand, they will have a value.
At the same time, the QE and LTRO are pushing towards cheap capitals, and there are little if any high return/high liquidity/ low risk tangible assets investments available. So QE is feeding the "financial assets" growth.
As consumption is expected to grow, and tangible assets will begin to generate higher returns, the capitals will start flowing towards them and the "refuge" will slowly be emptied.
Optimistic explanation
"Derivatives" are the real economy, they feed the people, they generate the wealth and bright future we all expect and deserve. They are a new invention that only a select few can possibly understand, so anyone criticizing them has no idea what they are talking about.
Pick your favorite...
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I am interested in research on Indian capital market and have completed a Ph.D. in the same subject. Now, I am in search of material which focusses on future of Indian Capital Market.
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Considering BIS current data on the amount of OTC derivatives contracts , the "betting game" might be valued 10 times the world GDP value.  
Do you see any further finantiarization risk related to the present main Central Banks monetary policies , deferring the end of QE and low interest rates?
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Dear Mark,
I entirely agree with you. The problem will become acute as soon as hot money evaporates. That's best described in the Minkovsky space how suddenly "strong" trends break and crashes follow when liquidity disappears. We have seen a harbinger already. On January 15 EURCHF crashed in the matter of a few minutes leaving a lot to think what were HFT funds doing then, actually why they disappeared from the market like the Chinese Wall in a Copperfield's trick? Prepare for the worst, the best will take care of itself. Quite recent developments on DJIA show that when the market is purposefully left by big hands to the public for a sentiment test, the index goes down quite fast. People do not give trust to the present uptrend which began from the lows of 2009. Is it supported by some crutches? I am of the opinion that we may have some new legislative initiative disallowing large leveraging when things start looking very nasty and provided there is someone who can imagine even the worst possible meltdowns underway. After all, what do you think about reducing the financial risk by onetime forced change of leveraging rules applicable to all uncovered open positions? The public would cheer to the idea and hail the saviors. I think that financial engineering tools will be considered sooner than later. Catastrophies deferred like deferred payment.
Regards
Paul     
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Attractors are probably what comes closest to an "equilibrium" for a dynamical system. While the trajectory of the system may vary, its stability may still be captured through an attractor classification. It would be interesting to note certain attractor properties in connection to FDI, and the set of assumptions need to allow for such a scrutiny.
So far aware of one paper that uses the term "strange attractor" in connection to FDI figuratively. And not in its strictly chaos definition(s).
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Hello!
Do you have in mind the Working Paper No. 04-06,
The Chaotic Attractor of Foreign Direct Investment - Why China? A Panel Data Analysis, Frank S.T. Hsiao and Mei-chu W. Hsiao, May 2004,
am I right?
There is also a study entitled:
The CEEC as FDI Attractors - A Menace to the EU Periphery? Galego, Aurora; Vieira, Carlos; Vieira, Isabel, 2004.
and
Competitiveness Strategy in Developing Countries
A Manual for Policy Analysis, by Ganeshan Wignaraja, 2002 – 320 pages, Series: Routledge Studies in Development Economics.
In The Chaotic Attractor of Foreign Direct Investment - Why China? A Panel Data Analysis, China is considered a "strange attractor". In fact, there are two categories of "attractors": (1) major FDI destinations such as China, USA, the "big four" in the EU etc. as well as (2) FDI determinants as "attractors".
International organizations such as UNCTAD, World Bank and IMF consider
FDI attractors=variables as follows: natural resource intensity, size and growth potential of the host market, labour cost, human capital, economic stability, trade openness, income level, corporate tax rates, the quality of institutions, rate of return on FDI, "round tripping" etc.
Dynamical systems are moving from an equilibrium point to another, along with the evolution of own "attractors", new technologies, new competitors, that is why both categories of "attractors" (destinations and determinants) are changing.
Please consult also the UNCTAD statistics:
I think it is important to map out FDI flows to different major FDI hosts from a double perspective: that of competitors for FDI and that of FDI determinants and their evolution in time.
Best,
Monica
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We understand that M-PESA technology adopted by Kenya is a success story for the world in digital financing. I would appreciate it if researchers could shed light for its success and the basic infrastructure required for its successful operation. We are visiting Kenya to learn about this technology so that it could be introduced in Nepal as well.
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I completely agree Technology innovation has changed the ways of our life
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I am intending to predict default probabilities by using logit regression on financial ratios of several companies from the same sector. Any idea where could I find a data set of companies from same sector that defaulted? I will be able to find all the financial ratios for them afterwards as long as they are listed but I need the basic data set of companies.
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My dependent variable is gini coeff and explanatory variables included lagged gini variable , trade and FDI variables (which can cause endogeneity problem),GDP,GDP-square ? I thought of using System GMM since i have lagged dependent variable and endogeneity problem.  Also,please guide when there is square term of GDP in my explanatory variables can still system GMM be used?
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This is complementary to what Prof. Piero has discussed above.
(1) The estimated coefficients of the squared independent variables should be interpreted as marginal effects. Another version of Threshold regression.
(2) I would prefer the xtabond2 version of the system GMM approach because it has some advantages like the control of cross-sectional dependence (Roodman, 2009ab).
References
Roodman, D., (2009a). “A Note on the Theme of Too Many Instruments”,
Oxford Bulletin of Economics and Statistics, 71(1), pp. 135-158.
Roodman, D., (2009b). “How to do xtabond2: An introduction to
difference and system GMM in Stata”, Stata Journal, 9(1), pp. 86-136.
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Professor Yanis Varoufakis put a new proposal in order to cure the domestic treasury and  to ensure a sound fiscal position in the medium or rather long term .
The idea is to issue GDP-linked bonds.
As far I understand the idea, the coupons should be linked with the GDP. The problem arises when we consider the future point of payment, since we obtain the GDP data with delay of ca. 4-6 months. 
 Is Mr. Varoufakis proposition a hidden haircut or rather a variation of Brady bonds?
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Well, there is a lot of techniqual issues that could be solved. The main problem might be that those bonds are not tradeable at the secondary market, since they are similar to equity and not debt, and in case of default, they are second ranked.
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Or is a world-historical paradigmatic lens more appropriate?
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I am rather doubtful if VOC approach (Hall and Soskice type) has anything concrete to analyse global financialization. I will explain in the subsequent post that VOC approach has a serious theory defect that prevents it analyse and examine globalization phenomenon.
Financialization has been a big topic for Regulationists since 1980's, for they considered finacialization as successor to Fordist regime of accumulation.  They have many books and papers on this theme.
It will be helpful and informative for you to read a review paper like van der Zwan's  
STATE OF THE ART: Making sense of financialization. Socio-Economic Review (2014) 12: 99–129. (see the link below)
It contains major survey on three major approaches: accumulation approach, share value approach and everyday life approach.  
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Now might be a great time to start the baseline of a longitudinal study of NCDs, especially cardiovascular disease, in Cuba before foreign direct investment by companies such as McDonald's, Yum Brands, etc. takes over the island. It would be interesting to see if, as incomes rise and people have more disposable income, whether they eat fast food, whether their BMI increases and if this causes higher cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. We have anecdotal evidence from East Asia following the 1997 currency crisis, where because the value of the bhat and other currencies fell relative to the dollar, people could not afford to eat fast food as much as they had been. People reported that they didn't eat fast food as much and felt better after moving back to a more traditional diet but there is no quantitative evidence of the effects on the incidence of cardiovascular disease.
Just a thought.
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Another thought. Don't assume that Cuba will follow the experience of other countries in this regard. Don't assume that the Cuban people are naive and that the country will be so vulnerable. Cuba has a well-developed public health infrastructure with plenty of well-trained, smart people and a population that is literate and engaged. The Cuban government is also unlikely to open the gates abruptly to investment and development it sees as contrary to the national interest. Small-scale private food services (essentially, fast food, Cuban style) was one of the first economic reforms introduced a while back and is a way for families to earn in their neighborhood. Cuba could well go down a very different track, esp. compared to SE Asia.
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I have read several papers on the cross-correlation between spot exchange rate and forward exchange rate, but find little economic meaning of that relationship.
In my opinion,export or import-company can avoid exchange rate risk by hedging with forward contracts. The central bank needs to adjust the monetary policy based on the changing relationship over time.
Any theory to analyze the meaning of spot and forward exchange rate?or any papers?
Thanks!!!
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Forward and current spot rates are linked due to the covered interest paritiy condition. Given interest rates at home and abroad, and the current spot rate, the forward rate will adjust to fulfill covered interest parity. Arbitrage is no longer profitable in this case. Since all variables are known in period t, covered interest parity should hold instantaneously. Empirical evidence suggests that the covered interest parity condition holds even if very short time data is considered.  
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I am interested in research on corporate governance and FDI in developing countries particularly sub-saharan African countries like Nigeria and South Africa. 
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Also you can see this article:The Influence of Foreign Direct Investment on
Corporate-Governance Practices: a Conceptual Framework
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I am interested in the kind of questions I can ask stock brokers and investment bankers. Most of the research on stock markets behavior is mainly secondary data form but I also want to have some primary data on this. Contributions will be appreciated.
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I'm sure you know that information asymmetry is related to corporate governance. You have two choices
1. you can conduct exploratory research where you you develop questionnaire relating to the issue(s) you like to investigate. You should also understand that in the advance countries there are excellent researches on corporate governance.
Thus, you can choose to study a specific issue relating to the market you are studying. It will be very difficult for me  to suggest a precise issue for you because I have no idea about the market you are conducting you research. However, with your experience you can see peculiar issues relating to your research area.
2. You can also conduct confirmatory study in this case you replicate similar issue from the existing literature. You will need to modify the questionnaire according to your local need. 
There are many models suggested by previous literature that would serve you well. All about hedging, financial contagion are remnants of information asymmetry. Thus, kindly check the European's Basel 1,2,3 . These regulations were developed  in order to deal with recklessness and unethical dealings in the financial markets. 
Apologies for late reply ..... its too busy over here.
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I am wondering why the concept of hoarding has disappeared after Keynes's General Theory. Are there any economists who tried to extricate the concept of Hoarding after Keynes?
The concept of Hoarding was once one of the most important ones. For example, it was an essential part of D. S. Robertson's framework of his monetary theory. However this concept does not play any conspicuous role in the economics after Keynes. It was practically wiped out from economics. As I have observed in my post of December 13, 2014 to my own question "Is saving necessarily invested or not? How can this contradiction in Keynes be solved?" (linked below), it seems that Keynes's Liquidity Preference concept has replaced and wiped out the concept of Hoarding.
I am thinking to save the concept of Hoarding and coin it anew as an essential part of the monetary theory of productions. In that purpose, I want to know the conceptual history of the this notion.
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From a perspective of History of Economic Thought, see Robinson, Joan (1938). The Concept of Hoarding
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What I have in mind is a numeric (preferably continuous) measure of personal income tax progressivity that allows to compare countries in a consistent manner.
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Hi,
the Kakwani index was designed to measure tax progressivity.
It is the difference between the Gini index before and after the intervention you want to measure.
Here is the original reference:
Kakwani, Nanak C. (March 1977). "Measurement of Tax Progressivity: An International Comparison". The Economic Journal 87 (345): 71–80. doi:10.2307/2231833
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I'm interested in the effectiveness of Corporate governance codes in emerging markets and will appreciate any framework that can assist in evaluating the outcomes of the codes from a financial or accounting point of view.
Thanks
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Thanks so much for your responses and should any one come across how to deal with endogeneity, it will be appreciated too. I tend to think that the consequences we arrive at by some of these methods could also be inclusive of other factors other than Corporate governance codes.
Best
Erick
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I have gone through many research papers, I found that Claessen et. al. is followed most of the time. Though Claessen et. al. model was used for cross-national studies, in single country studies also this model is followed. is there any better alternative for Claessen et. al ?
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ISSUE: Claessen et al. model
The abstract of that paper tells us that "this paper the extent and effect of foreign presence in domestic banking markets." J. Banking & Finance, 25 (2001), 891. reading through the paper, it appear the second part is missing: "effect of foreign presence on domestic banking markets"---was not reported.
PERFORMANCE COMPARISON NOT EFFECT MEASUREMENT: The article talks about performance comparison on the basis of accounting ratio comparison. This is not the same as measuring the effect of foreign banks having on that of domestic banks. In order to capture the effect of foreign banks on domestic banks, two periods must be examine: (i) performance of domestic banks prior to foreign banks entry, and (ii) performance of domestic banks after the entry of foreign banks. The study appears to be large: 7,900 banks from 80 countries for a period of 7 years (1988 - 1995 "inclusive"). In these 7 years, the effect measurement could have been measured if, say, 1988 - 1995 (2 years---as an initial period where the performance of foreign banks are recorded) then year 1990 through 1990 as comparison of the effect of foreign banks on domestic banks. This is not done----there is a problem here because at 1998, there are already foreign banks present---a means to control for that part must be design.
EFFECT MEASUREMENT: This is not the same as performance comparison. This part is missing from the article. In order to measure the effect of foreign banks on the performance of domestic banks in the banking industry, a separate effect measurement (not performance comparison) must be done separately. As a possible test candidate, suppose we measure the differences in performance from year to year, this allows us at least try to use Poisson two-counts.
Z = (R1 - R2) / sqrt [(R/ t1) + (R/ t2)]
R1 = N1 / t1
R2 = N2 / t2
... where N1 and N2 equals to the observed counts at t1 and t2. One can define effect as +1 and non-effect = 0.
For comparison of the performance, we now have two groups of data: (i) domestic banks before and after entry of foreign banks; (ii) domestic and foreign banks performance after foreign bank entry.
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Hello,
I am wondering whether the intercepts in models 5-8 of Table 4 can be interpreted as the change in operating performance of sample firms through the IPO. This would mean that on average, the operating performance deteriorates through the IPO by -19.78% to -37.41% depending on the model specifications. Is this correct or am I missing something?
Thank you for the clarification!
Best regards,
Andreas
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Hi Andreas,
In my understanding the dependent variables in model 5-8 have been already the average of industry-adjusted measures of operating performance over the 5-year post-issue period (p. 473).  Jain & Kini's approach followed the papers of Healy et al (1992) etc (p.472), but I do not know if there are other papers using their (5-8) models. Hope this helps. 
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I came across a paper which claims to use US inflation rates to recalculate GDP data. In 1990, international Geary-Khamis dollars provided for different countries in Maddison’s data base into nominal GDP data in US dollars.
Does anyone know how that can be done? The explanation is not provided in the paper, and the paper is published in a top journal.
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GDP in US dollars (for a country that is not the USA) is simply GDP in local currency divided by the exchange rate of the local currency to the US dollar.
GDP in interntional dollars is GDP in local currency divided by the Purchsing Power Parity (PPP) exchnage rate instead of by the market exchange rate.
Thus for example if the contry's GDP is 100 billions Local Currency and the market exchnage rates is: 
1 USD = 5 Local Currency
While the PPP exchnage rate is:
1 International Dollar = 4 Local Currency
The GDP is US dollars will be 20 billions and the GDP in International Dollars will be 25 billions.    
Also the price level of the country in the example relative to the USA will 80% (4/5).
Thus it is obvious that in order to calculate the GDP in local currency from GDP in Interntional Dollars you must know the PPP exchange rate (which cannot be calculated by the inflation rate).
The data on PPP exchange rates and realtive price levels are published by the International Comparison Program (ICP) of the World Bank (see the link below).
More on the PPP calculations you can find in section 3 of my attached artilce.
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In estimating the impact of liquidity on real sector activity variables with various econometric techniques, one could inevitable come across an endogeneity problem as liquidity feeds say the output and then there is a feedback loop effect. Has anyone come across a good instrumental variable to reduce the endogeneity problem?
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The liquidity and the real sector performance are definitely endogenous as they are in essence jointly determined. There are several ways to solve this problem. The answer to your question would depend on the nature of the data (what is the unit of observation, frequency, is it panel or time series, one country or cross country?).
I suggest you look into Finance and Growth literature for the appropriate choice of instruments for liquidity variables in calculating the impact on the real sector. If you are using cross country data, there are plenty of instruments that the literature uses.
Good place to start would be looking into HANDBOOK OF ECONOMIC GROWTH (http://web.stanford.edu/~chadj/Handbook.html) chapters 8 and 12. That should give you good idea about appropriate choice of instruments.
In general, if you are using data from only one country, instruments are much harder to come by. In the panel data setting in the research on finance and the real sector, the most popular is Roodman's implementation (http://www.stata-journal.com/article.html?article=st0159) of Arellano-Bond (1991), Arellano-Bover (1995) and Blundell-Bond (1998) technique which does not require the use of outside instruments.
However, one needs to be careful in adopting all the different techniques as they are mostly "imported" from microeconometrics and several conditions need to hold before one applies them to the macro data.
If you provide a more detailed description of your dataset and variables included in the model, perhaps I can be of more help.
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I'm doing a study on shareholders' wealth maximization.
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Hi Joshua,
The first two objections you list can be easily dealt with by discounting future profits (what in the finance literature is known as free cash flows) by using a suitable discount factor, which could include a risk premium. Nevertheless, these objections are equally valid for shareholders' wealth maximization any way.
The third criticism, which in my opinion is a valid one, is also applicable to wealth maximization because both profit and wealth maximization are zero sum games: There exist inherent contradiction in private and public interests, contrary to what Adam Smith suggested.
I hope you find this helpful.
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With external borrowing by the government which has the muscle to borrow at any interest rates, it is usually believed by many economics scholars that interest rates will go down due to excess supply of funds, but I do think otherwise. What main factors will result to lending rates reducing or otherwise?
 
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This may be true in case of developing economies. At-least  this will eliminate the possibilities of crowding out effect.
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What are the commonly used indicators to measure the pricing power in a financial market?
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Annual probability of default 5Y CDS spreads
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Not true.
Naive diversification is combining assets into portfolios randomly and ignore correlation. In contrast, Markowitz diversification is combining assets with correlation coefficients.
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Naive diversification rest on the assumption that simply investing in enough unrelated assets will reduce risk sufficiently to make a profit. Alternatively, one may diversify naively by applying the capital asset pricing model incorrectly and finding the wrong efficient portfolio frontier. Such diversification does not necessary decrease risk at a given expected return and may in fact increase risk.
Markowitz diversification occurs when one uses mathematical models to find the stock to place in portfolio such that the portfolio has the highest possible return for its level of risk. One may engage in MArkowitz diversification when one wishes to increases or decreases one's portfolio's risk, or when the portfolio was previously not diversified.
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Can anyone may give me any classical or recent results?
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This is perfect to start with: thank you very much
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Alpha is a risk-adjusted measure of active return on an investment.
The FF 3 factor model is emerging 2 classes of stock with CAPM to reflect a portfolio's theory.
r - Rf = beta3 x ( Km - Rf ) + bs x SMB + bv x HML + alpha
Alpha Coefficient can show that in an efficient market, the expected value of the alpha coefficient is zero. Therefore the alpha coefficient indicates how an investment has performed after accounting for the risk it involved:
Alpha_i < 0 : the investment has earned too little for its risk (or, was too risky for the return)
Alpha_i = 0 : the investment has earned a return adequate for the risk taken
Alpha_i > 0 : the investment has a return in excess of the reward for the assumed risk
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Absolutely. Take the case of a portfolio. The measurement of alpha with CAPM assumes that a portfolio is (1) passive and (2) similar in style and value as the "market." In this case, a significant negative or positive alpha can be a distortion. For example, if (1) your portfolio is more value-oriented than the "market" and (2) value stocks have overperformed growth stocks during the period of evaluation, your portfolio alpha is overestimated. Now, if you orthogonalize alpha for value and size biases, then your measurement of "excess return" is more refined. Momentum (Carhart) and market timing are also factors can be added. In fact, professional (commercial) factor models like MSCI BARRA use up to 8 or 10 risk factor groups comprised of 100s of risk macro components (liquidity, confidence, volatility, trading activity, etc.).
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The development of portfolio theory by Markowitz.
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The assumptions remain unchanged. No theory is perfect. All subject s to criticism. Most important thing is what we can learn from the theory.
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I can find the current components of these market indexes but not historical information. Companies can change from year to year.
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A friend was looking for information. Working with Bloomberg today, so instead of taking historical values​​, then collect a variable score of historical bloomberg governance. It is a way out.
The score bloomberg is a continuous variable, then it is best to apply econometric models.
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Robert Lucas (1990) observed that little capital flows to poorer nations where returns are higher. The explanations put forth so far and empirical studies conducted do not fully account for this bizarre flow of capital. Given this anomaly, could perception of sovereign risk be a factor?
Before you attempt to answer this question, here is my view. There is the actual risk and perceived risk that managers are faced with when making investment decisions. In conditions of information asymmetry, it may imply that the actual and perceived risk may be at variance, with perceived risk getting more prominent. In fact, perceived risk may play a big part in driving investment decisions- informally being labelled as expert judgement and gut feeling. Coupled with the fact that managers in modern corporate governance settings are being pushed towards the maximization of shareholder value (actual or perceived), even well informed managers may shun positive NPV projects in developing countries in order to not trigger a negative market reaction.
Do you see any sense in my argument? Sorry the idea is still raw thats why it's not very clear.
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I am an attorney specializing in advising clients on infrastructure development and finance matters. I also teach law students, as well as foreign officials (many of whom are in emerging markets) on raising private capital. Perception of risk is a key issue when my clients are making an investment decision. Part of the evaluation includes a sovereign risk analysis as the success of a transaction is very much influenced by the willingness and ability of the country to support the project both at its inception and through the life of the deal,. Many infrastructure projects require a considerable amount of debt and equity capital, and it may take 15-20 years for the investor to repay the debt and obtain the expected return on the equity investment.
This analysis includes a number of issues, including the stability of the government, the economic conditions in the country, the history of the country and its citizens in supporting private investment in the country for infrastructure projects, and whether there is a favorable legal and regulatory climate. Additionally, it may take a number of years to develop projects, and if the perception is that it would take too much time or money to invest in a particular country, the investor may look at similar investments in other jurisdictions where the perception is that the development will be easier to manage. Finally, many of these projects use project financing as a means of raising debt, so even if the client is willing to invest in the project, the client considers whether lenders are willing to lend to the project and the conditions to providing the loans. The investors also evaluate the availability and cost of political risk insurance and the types of risks that the insurance covers as a way of mitigating these risks, again comparing this with availability and costs in other jurisdictions.
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The severity of the 2007-2009 financial crisis, just like the emerging market crises of the 1990s, has raised the question as to whether modern liberalized financial markets are more of a curse than a blessing. In theory, liberalized financial markets should allow efficient risk - sharing. Some research works have shown that financial integration leads to a lower degree of business cycle synchronization. It is also argued that proximity to major international financial centers seems to reduce business cycle volatility. But many find that theoretical predictions of risk-sharing benefits are not supported by the data.
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Modern liberalized markets makes countries (especially economically weaker) become even more financially dependent on developed countries. The development of the global financial market reduces the effectiveness of national economic policy. Therefore, as stated above "blessing" only for some countries.
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I am looking for MNE information. Thank you
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You can find that for Peru and many countries in the world from http://unctadstat.unctad.org/ReportFolders/reportFolders.aspx. The specific data fro Peru is attached.
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When is the right time to change the laws of a country that are not in alignment with IFRS?
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They are a consequence of growing international shareholding and trade and are particularly important for companies that have dealings in several countries. They are progressively replacing the many different national accounting standards. The rules to be followed by accountants to maintain books of accounts which is comparable, understandable, reliable and relevant as per the users internal or external.
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I would like to take part in such conference or any other scientific event on the issue.
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