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Fisher studied if there is an out-of-equilibrium process that rapidly converges to some equilibrium points. He claims that Hahn process has a Lyapounof function and therefore convergent to an equilibrium. How can we understand Fisher's result with Saari and Simon (1978) Effective price mechanisms, Econometrica 46(5), 1097-1125, which claims there is no effective method of calculation that leads to an equilibrium?
The growth of science based knowledge or contribution to knowledge a la Thomas Kuhn is foward looking as FLAWED paradigms(STATUS QUO) enter the Kuhn's paradigm evolution loop under academic integrity, where abnormalities are removed to solve critical problems like social and/or environmental sustainability problems leading to new paradigms and knowledge as the old knowledge base is left behind, backward moves and paradigms avoidance moves are inconsistent with Thomas Kuhn's thinking.
Therefore, the move from a flawed paradigm backwards in the face of critical social and/or environmental problems is ao flawed paradigm to another even more flawed paradigm.
We know formally since 1987 WCED that the traditional market thinking/linear market thinking was a flawed paradigm socially and environmentally. Hence a move from linear economic thinking to circular economic thinking is a move from a flawed paradigm to a flawed paradigm without forward looking growth of scientific knowledge a la Thomas Kuhn as the status quo paradigm/linear traditional market goes into DEEP double down flawed paradigm/circular traditional market regardless of the history of economic thought 1987-2023.
And this raises the question: Will the move from linear to circular economic thinking be remembered in the historty of economic thought as a backward deep paradigm double down?
What do you think? If No, why do you you think so? If Yes, why do you think so?
In his small book <i>Economics without Equilibrium</i> (1985, p.31), Nicholas Kaldor declares that "the sellers are price-makers and quantity-takers."
I was long considering that this was one of the oldest expressions of the idea about asymmetric functions between sellers and buyers. Recently, I found that Harold Hotelling in his famous paper "Stability in Competition" <i>Economic Journal</i> (1929) noted that Piero Sraffa emphasized the asymmetry between supply and demand by observing that "the seller sets the price and buyers the quantities they will buy" (EJ 1929 pp.41-42).
My question is this: <b>Do you have any further information about the idea that sellers set prices and buyers the quantities?</b>
I believe this composes an important history of Post Keynesian economics. I want to know the origin of this idea and its subsequent development. Any minor information will be helpful. Thank you in advance.
Can economic growth occur in the short term? If the answer is no, what is the reason behind economic growth not occurring in the short term and occurring only in the long term?
Economics has been transformed in applied logic and pure mathematics. This does not help to understand how the world really works. We should differentiate between Mathematical Economics and Economic Science or Political Economy. That´s my thinking!!!
Green markets are markets where the environmental cost of pollution is positive and endogenous. Environmentally clean markets are markets where the environmentally cost of pollution is zero and endogenous. Which raises the question, would economic expansions towards environmentally clean markets have taken place had Adam Smith given us the theory of the perfect green market in 1776?
I think Yes, what do you think? Why?
Why is Keynesian theory not considered as a theory of economic growth? Although it simply suggests that income, which Keynesian theory assumes equals output, can be changed by increasing effective aggregate demand, it all takes the case from the demand side rather than from the supply side.
I am trying to prepare a history of the pricing discipline for my next course and I am surprised not to find many papers on the subject. Most research I have seen is very superficial without clear sources. Repeating the same claims (invention of the price tag etc.) and having a very Western centric view. Any recommendations on a good comprehensive history of pricing?
Thanks a lot.
Since the second half of the twentieth century economic theory, unable to explain economic reality, has been moved increasingly away from traditional price theory to more modern trends such as game theory, decision theory, behavioral-empirical-experimental economics, heterodox economics etc. There is no doubt that reality is always far from the ideal state of theory and any attempt to complete theory with assumptions and parameters closer to reality is welcome. But what about if a big amount of divergence between reality and theory is due to mistakes of the theory itself?
I believe that traditional (mainstream) economics have a series of serious fundamental mistakes, which, if revised, lead to a totally different theory about how economy works. And as we always need a basic theory before we proceed to any completions and improvements of it to better match reality, we should first consider this revised basic theory. To be more concrete, the fundamental mistakes of the traditional mainstream economics are, in my opinion, the following:
1) The price taking principle and the horizontal individual demand curve for the firm
Price taking of course prevails in the market after the equilibrium has taken place, but the question is how the equilibrium is determined beforehand, by the forces of demand and supply, which certainly remain the same before and after equilibrium (meaning that a sloping demand curve can not be horizontal at the time of equilibrium). The revision here is simply that the individual demand for the firm is the total demand equally distributed to the number of firms, because buyers certainly do not have a preference for some firms in buying the product since it is an homogeneous product. This means that the individual demand curves for the firms are sloping and not horizontal and this has tremendous implications on the economic theory and its outcomes (the equilibrium point is not at the minimum average cost, which invalidates the maximization of social welfare and the optimization of Pareto efficiency, etc).
2) The supply curve
The question here is which the supply curve is, the average cost or the marginal cost curve? According to Marshall it was the average cost curve, but according to the Marginalists, who eventually prevailed in mainstream economics, it is the marginal cost curve. This latter however creates a big inconsistency: the equilibrium point, that is the intersection of total supply and total demand curves, does not maximize the profits of firms, as this maximization occurs at the intersection of total supply (marginal cost) and the total marginal revenue (and not the total demand). Yet, the profit maximization is a basic assumption in mainstream economics and should be hold at market level if it holds at firm level (it is simply a matter of aggregation). The revision here is that the supply curve is the average cost curve, and its intersection with the demand curve gives the zero (economic) profit, which is the fundamental feature in perfect competition with the continuous entry of firms till the zeroing of profit.
3) Ignorance of the firms' number as a key factor in determining equilibrium
Traditional theory sought the solution of the market equilibrium question in the intersection of two curves, demand and supply, to determine the equilibrium pair of price (p) and quantity (Q), while ignoring another factor involved in the determination of equilibrium, namely the number of firms (n), which is absolutely necessary to determine the equilibrium since this factor shapes the total supply and thus its intersection with the total demand. So we need one more equation to determine the additional unknown (n), and this equation could be none other than the equation of profit maximization, that traditional theory lacks at market level as said before. Thus the system of three equations (Demand, Supply, Profit maximization) determines the three unknowns (price, quantity, number of firms); and furthermore the number of firms in perfect competition is definite and not infinite or indefinite, as the traditional theory assumes.
These revisions bring about dramatic changes in the whole economic theory and in the social welfare, with tremendous political implications. For more analysis and for the outcomes of this research, please refer to my articles (available at ResearcgGate and ssrn):
I would be very appreciative to have your opinion, thesis and comments on this discussion.
It can be said that Thomas Kuhn’s loop is active only when the working of paradigms generates abnormalities. If a paradigm does not generate abnormalities it is a golden paradigm.
Hence, the Kuhn’s loop can be envisioned as moving from paradigm to paradigm correcting abnormalities until there are no more abnormalities to correct.
In other words, the Kuhn’s loop works its way up from non-golden paradigms to the golden paradigm.
And this raises the question; Can Thomas Kuhn’s scientific revolution loop be seen as the road that leads in the end to a golden paradigm ruled world?
I think the answer is Yes, what do you think?
Feel free to share your own views on the question!
Dear colleagues,
It is amazing how much neoclassical and today's mainstream economics are based on a misinterpretation of a Cournot's price stability condition, which remained undiscovered till now.
Cournot’s idea for price stability and perfect competition through an infinite number of firms, each of inappreciable production that cannot affect the price, has been fully adopted by the subsequent neoclassical theorists and embodied in today’s mainstream economics. But, in the passage of this idea from Cournot to neoclassical economics, there was a misinterpretation of this price stability condition that led neoclassical economics to the notion of price taking and horizontal demand curve for the individual firm, while Cournot himself considered this individual demand curve to be sloping.
This misconception led neoclassical and mainstream economics to erroneous models and outcomes. The most serious implication is that the equilibrium price in perfect competition is not at the minimum average cost, as neoclassical economics argues, but at a higher cost, which, in turn, has further implications for social welfare.
You can find more about this in my recent article:
I would appreciate very much your comments and feedback as start of a discussion on this issue.
Those familiar with Kuhn’s ideas on the evolution of scientific thought know or should know that what is normal science today may not be normal science tomorrow as normal science tomorrow if resulting from paradigm shifts that address the abnormalities of old paradigms that lead it into crises would be inconsistent with normal science today…..
Kuhn’s loop on how science evolves is based on the idea of honest academic thinking and discourse that in the end leads to paradigm change and to the growth of scientific thought….
But what if the loop of the growth of knowledge is plagued by willful academic blindness and silence….an aspect that apparently escaped Kuhn’s imagination…..
Which leads to the question, What happens to the scientific revolution loop a la Thomas Kuhn under willful academic blindness? Any ideas!
Feel free to share your own ideas
I have a project to evidence Thomas Robert Malthus theory about a principal of population (Malthusian Spectre/Malthusian Trap). I want to attest, his theory about a relationship of population and earth production/environment. is that applied in a country that i would like to attest or not? But i was confused, what variable that i can use to analyze it empirically?
Neoclassical economics (and generally mainstream economics) considers the maximization of profits of firms as a presupposition for the economic equilibrium. Yet, according to its own equilibrium analysis, this is not met. Because, the maximization of profits takes place at the intersection of the total supply curve (marginal cost) with the marginal revenue curve coming from the total demand, and not with the total demand curve itself as neoclassicals argue.
How does orthodox economics explain this inconsistency?
The concept of effective demand has vanished from the New Keynesian Economics. You will find that there is no term like effective demand in the textbooks of this strand. It is the real cleavage between New Keynesian Economics and Post Keynesian Economics. However, I do not think that a good theory of effective demand is by now well constructed by the Post Keynesian Economists. This state of the art derives from the misformulation of J. F. Keynes himself when he gave the definition of effective demand in Chapter 3 of The General Theory.
Let me cite two of his paragraphs:
>Let Z be the aggregate supply price of the output from employing N men, the relationship between Z and N being written Z = φ(N), which can be called the aggregate supply function. Similarly, let D be the proceeds which entrepreneurs expect to receive from the employment of N men, the relationship between D and N being written D = f(N), which can be called the aggregate demand function.
>Now if for a given value of N the expected proceeds are greater than the aggregate supply price, i.e. if D is greater than Z, there will be an incentive to entrepreneurs to increase employment beyond N and, if necessary, to raise costs by competing with one another for the factors of production, up to the value of N for which Z has become equal to D. Thus the volume of employment is given by the point of intersection between the aggregate demand function and the aggregate supply function; for it is at this point that the entrepreneurs' expectation of profits will be maximized. The value of D at the point of the aggregate demand function, where it is intersected by the aggregate supply function, will be called the effective demand. Since this is the substance of the General Theory of Employment, which it will be our object to expound, the succeeding chapters will be largely occupied with examining the various factors upon which these two functions depend.
In short, the effective demand is the value of aggregate demand of the point of intersection of two aggregate functions: aggregate supply function and aggregate demand function. If this is real definition of "effective demand" and the principle of effective demand holds, the principle of effective supply will hold as well.
This is the definition of effective demand. How about the principle of effective demand itself? There is no clear explanation of the principle. The word "principle" only appears once in Chapter 3 (outside of the title). There are no other places where Keynes explains the principle of effective demand. In this sense, “effective demand” is an ill-defined premature concept, and the principle of effective demand is not well formulated.
This might be a part of the cause of the anti-Keynes counterrevolution in 1970's and the retreat made by New Keynesians vis-à-vis the concept of effective demand.
I believe that the most important idea in the General Theory was the principle of effective demand. Therefore my question is how to reconstruct the theory of effective demand. The theory must include the effective definition of effective demand and the explanation of how and where the principle of effective demand works. I will give my own ideas, but readers are requested to give their version of the theory of effective demand.
Who has coined the term “Say’s law”? Is it Keynes or is there any predecessor to him? Suppose someone has coined this term. Is it the same idea that John Baptiste Say wanted to express in his famous chapter on Débouchés?
In my opinion, classical writers like J. B. Say and David Ricardo only wanted to say that economic growth is possible against the claim that it is not. For example, Ricardo picked up this topic in Chapter 21 which has a title: Effects of Accumulation on Profits and Interest. This proves what situation Ricardo was thinking.
If my hypothesis is approved, that Say and Ricardo claimed Say's law in the meaning that John M. Keynes had given in his General Theory. It seems to me that Keynes attacked Say and Ricardo by his self-invented scarecrow.
I am now writing a paper (one of four chapters in my present project) on the negotiation and transactions between two parties. The two parties may include relations between firm to firm and between firm to consumers. I am thinking that this form of transaction is more fundamental and typical of all forms of transactions, of which organized markets like security and commodity exchanges are uniquely highlighted in the textbooks.
A possibility is face-to-face transaction. This term is fairly good in indicating the difference against the organized markets. The inconvenience is that it is opposed to transactions through internet or telephone transactions in legislation. I want the term to included transactions by internet between two parties.
Another possibility is two-party transaction. This term seems to have also some special connotations in law, but engenders fewer confusions.
Do you know any other good expression? If you do not, which of the above two possibilities do you judge more preferable for my study?
In addition, is there any paper which argued my question, i.e. the opposition between organized market transaction and transactions between two parties?
In international trade theory, HO or Heckscher-Ohlin-Samuelson model and its variants Heckscher-Ohlin-Vanek model and North-South HOS models played a dominant role in trade theory and policy. However, starting from Leontief paradox, Leamer and Trefler and others in 1990’s revealed its irrelevance. In the context of South-North questions, Joel Hellier (2012)’s comprehensive assessment shows that NS-HOS models are in the same state. Who still dares to defend HO models?
Can value judgments in normative economics generate abuses of unreliable use of economic knowledge for the purposes of designing socio-economic policies?
In my opinion, economics is a neutral science in terms of valuation. In my opinion, it is not only neutral in terms of valuing the processes of host reality described by economic concepts, but should be neutral. One of the areas of economics in which value judgments are allowed is normative economics referring to the assessment of economic processes that will occur in the future or which are planned for implementation in the future. In this respect, economics is a tool for debates, discussions, brainstorming at the academic level but also in the pre-election debates in the world of politics. However, often the economics used for the needs of politicians, in the field of electoral programs, social and economic policy projects are created abuses. Often in such political applications of economic knowledge selectively selectively some theories, concepts from the history of economic thought, selected economic laws, specific dependencies, etc. which perfectly serve to explain the legitimacy of the application of a specific socio-economic policy, but usually do not include the holistically described economic reality, they do not represent all economic knowledge comprehensively.
Please reply
Best wishes

Marc Lavoie's book Post-Keynesian Economics (2014) is a thick book of 650 pages and has a subtitle New Foundations. It is full of arguments on methodologies and policy orientations. I read full of criticisms against neoclassical economics (both micro and macro ones), but as far as I see in the book, few theoretical foundations are deployed. Does this mean that Post Keynesian Economics need no theoretical foundations? Or does this simply mean that Post Keynesians have not yet succeeded to build their own foundations?
The European revolutions produced between 1789 and 1848 gave rise to a new type of state that historians call "liberal". The political philosophy that sustained these regimes is the so-called "liberalism", which in the mid-nineteenth century had a dual aspect: political and economic. Liberalism implies the respect to the citizen and individual liberties protected, in a general way, on an inviolable constitution that reflects the rights and duties of citizens and rulers; separation of legislative, executive and judicial powers to avoid any abuse of power, and the right to vote. Along with this political liberalism, the bourgeois state of the nineteenth century is also based on economic liberalism: a set of theories and practices at the service of the upper bourgeoisie and which, to a large extent, were a consequence of the industrial revolution. From the point of view of practice, economic liberalism meant the non-intervention of the state in social, financial and business issues. From here, and based on the experiences that we live in our countries, I propose this question. Thanks in advance for your responses.
Unemployment must be an important question also in trade theory. However, we see no many papers or books that argued and analyzed involuntary unemployment in trade theory. If you know any papers and books that treated Keynesian unemployment in relation to international trade, please teach me.
What I know is only a few:
(1) Harrod, R.F. (1939, 1949) International Economics, Second and revised edition.
(2) Robinson, Joan 1965 Inaugural Lecture, Cambridge University. (On New Mercantilism)
This question was originally directed to the project by e. ahmet Tonak, Anwar Shaikh, and Sungur Savran: Empirical Measurement of Labour Theory Of Value Categories. But I think my question has a more general significance and I changed the title of my question. The following question is the original one.
Are you thinking that prices of commodities are proportional to their embodied labor? If not, what are you planning to do?
After the long debate on transformation problem, it seems useless efforts to attempt to prove that labor contents are proportional to prices. Single system interpretation is an abandonment of labor theory of value. You may explain exploitation but it is not already a theory of value. You may dress a table of national accounting on the base of labor hours, but you cannot explain how and why such and such things happened in the real capitalist economy. You may have much more important things to do in understanding capitalism.
If you want to make reconciliation with Marx's thought, the following comment by Lyudmila Vashina on Rubin's book would be suggesting:
- Rubin came to the following conclusion: the main part of Marx's theory of value is not the proof that the value of a commodity depends on the quantity of labor expended in the production of the commodity, but the understanding that production relations of commodity capitalist economy inevitably take the value form and the labour is expressed only in values. It is wrong to think, Rubin insists, that, starting from value phenomena of things, Marx arrived as a result of analysis to the conclusion that the common thing was labor as a result of analysis to the conclusion (This kind of problem setting was seen among precursors of Marx). According to Rubins's interpretation, Marx's process of thinking was essentially the converse. The "private" labor of individual producers can be transformed into social labor only through the value of their labor products. (Excerpt from Lyudmina Vashina's paper Rubin and his manuscript which was attached to Rubins's book Outline of Monetary Theory of Marx (2011) in Russian edited by her; my translation from the Japanese translation by Susumu Takenaga)
As it is easily known, min-times and max-time algebra in the domain of real positive numbers is isomorphic to the max-plus algebra on real numbers. I have looked all papers in the references of this research project but could not find in the titles any explicit reference on the min-times or max-times algebra. I want to know if there is anybody who is working in min-times or max-times algebra.
I have found that min-times and max-times algebras and convex geometry based on these algebras are very good tool to know the structure of the maximal frontier of production possibility set for international trade economy of Ricardian type. See two of my papers below. This study is rather isolated from other idempotent semi-ring analysis, but it is possible that we can find many other fields in which we can use max-times or min-times algebra. Does anyone have information for me?
- International trade theory and exotic algebra
- Subtropical Convex Geometry as the Ricardian Theory of International Trade
N.B. Contents of two papers are not very different. The first one is much shorter but explanations are more concise.
New developmentalism is a theoretical framework of development economics that is developed mainly by Luis Carlos Bresser-Pereira and aims to present an alternative to the neoclassical development economics. For the most recent overview, see his paper which appeared in Review of Keynesian Economics, 2016:
Reflecting on the new developmentalism and classical developmentalism
It has a good theory of macroeconomics and a set of policies, but its microeconomics is still in the state of a draft. In particular, I believe it lacks a theory of international values. How do you think of the state of the art?
This is a question in relation to Breser-Pereira’s project:
The political economy of new developmentalism.
I posed a long question on it but it seems my question was refuted because it was too long (see the question "How do you think of microeconomic foundations of the new developmentalism?") I will post it as one of my answer to the question.
Karl Marx on the 21 st century trade unionism: A discourse on their past, present, and future. May I have this article withdrawn because the journal 'Pensee' does not exist and was highjacked.
My recent book might help since it converts the current pseudo-science of macroeconomics into a true one. Write to me at chesterdh@hotmail.com and get a free e-copy, that does extend the past sincere ideas.
Hi! According to Sjö (2011), https://www.iei.liu.se/nek/730A16/filarkiv/1.307105/Dfdistab8.pdf, the Pantula principle should first start with a constant and a trend, and then work its way towards no constant or trend. This is counter to what I have learnt. In my econometrics course, it says the Pantula principle should start with no constant or trend, and end with constant and trend. What is correct?
I can found a lot of scholarly studies about the technique of futures markets (both commodity and financial produces), about they work and about their general utility, but I am searching ideas about explaining why a government or international organisations would prefer a future trade instead of other forms of market governance and pricing system.
I am interested who first examined two-person, two-good economy as a situation. In the international trade theory, it is so common to think two-country, two-commodity economy. This is of course the minimum setting for international trade to occur. Then who has started to argue two-person, two-good economy / model as a situation to study exchange process?
I have found in James Mill's Elements of Political Economy (1821) a paragraph like this:
- To produce exchange, therefore, there must be two countries, and two commodities. (III.IV.9 )
Marginal revolution is understood to have occurred in 1870’s. However, Blaug (2001) shows that Germany and France were ahead of UK in topics and tools like subjective value theory and demand and supply diagram. J.R. Hicks claimed that the most important characteristic of the marginal revolution was the shift from plutology (economics of production) to catallactics (economics of exchange). The image and meaning of the so-called marginal revolution must be drastically changed. What is your opinion? What does it mean for the present-day economics?
Crossing demand and supply curve diagram is famous as Marshallian cross. However, Mark Blaug in his paper "No History of Ideas, Please, We're Economists" in Journal of Economics Perspective 15(1): 145-164, Winter 2001, points that
- first appearance of subjective value theory and a demand and supply diagram---with price on the vertical axis as in Marshall---was in the fourth 1841 edition of Rau's Grundsätze der Volkswirtschaftslehre (1826), the first standard German textbook that ran into eight editions in the next 40 years. (p.159)
This substantially changes our ideas on the development of economic theories. Now my question is this:
What are the factors that retarded demand and supply diagram to emerge in England and other English speaking countries?
Michio Morishima liked to talk that three representative economists of pre-WWII Japan were Takata Yasuma (高田保馬, Y. Takata), Shibata Kei (柴田敬, K. Shibata) and Sono Shozo (園正造, S. Sono; mathematician). I do not believe this is an impartial estimate, because three of them were professors of Kyoto Imperial University (now Kyoto University) where Morishima himself once studied as a student and worked as a teaching staff. Even though, Shibata was one of a few economists whose contribution in theoretical economics gathered some light during the Inter War Period.
Shibata is most known by the fact that O. Lange (1934-35) cited his work (Shibata, 1933). P. Samuelson (1967) picked up this episode in commemoration of the centennial of the first volume of Marx's Capital.
However, Shibata has much more varied faces. Hiroshi Ohta tells about Shibata's connection to Leontief's input-output tables. He may have many more "unknown" contributions to economics. Please post any information about him. Your re-appraisal of Shibata's works is included among this information.
Lange, O. 1934−35 Marxian Economics and Modern Economic Theory, Review of Economic Studies 2: 189−201.
Samuelson, Paul A. 1967 Marxian Economics as Economics. American Economic Review 57(2): 616-623. Short comments in p.621 and p.622.
Natural sciences may included astronomy, physics, chemistry and biology. As social sciences I am thinking of economics, political science and sociology.
I am particularly interested if there are some studies that compare Copernican revolution with other revolution in economics, for example marginal revolution, Keynesian revolution or anti-Keynesian revolution.
Equilibrium is the most important method of analysis in economics. It has a long tradition that started from the 18th century with French scholars such as A.-N. Isnard and N.-F. Canard and elaborated by L. Walras as a real method of analysis. Existence of an equilibrium began to be studied in 1930's Wien and was completed by Arrow and Debreu's demonstration. Equilibrium still remains today the major framework of almost all economic analyses. State-of-the-art macroeconomics is normally discussed by a Dynamic Stochastic General Equilibrium (DSGE) model.
P. Krugman once argued that, without models, economics becomes a collection of metaphors and historical details (Krugman 1997, p.75). To avoid this, it is necessary to make a formal mathematical model which, in his opinion, usually contains two principles: maximization and equilibrium.
Despite of Krugman's compelling argument, we see many economists contest the usefulness of equilibrium concept. They sometimes argue that the equilibrium framework is the very source of all derailments of the present-day economics.
My opinion from old days is that
- it is necessary to replace equilibrium by some other concept, and
- the best solution would be the concept of dissipative structure.
Do you agree with me? Or do you have any other ideas?
In this paper I have shown that the notion of comparative advantage that can be found in todays economic textbooks is the result of important misinterpretations of Ricardo’s famous numerical example, like the definition of the four numbers and the relationship with the labor theory of value, among others. These misinterpretations led to a different notion of comparative advantage than Ricardo’s.
There are now number of papers with a title which includes "processing trade." One can say that processing trade is now a flourishing subject matter in the research of international trade. The concept is now well established but it is enigmatic that this concept remained obscure in the 20th century.
Papers and books with titles which include "processing trade" before 2000 are rather rare. For example, we can cite these titles:
- Kang, C. K., & Chang, S. I. (1987). Processing trade and industrial organization. KIET, Seoul.
- Kalyuzhnova, Y. (1995). Outward processing trade between the European Union and the associated countries of Eastern Europe: the case of textiles and clothing. Economic Bulletin for Europe, 47, 109-127.
- Dapei, Z. (1997). China's Present Processing Trade and Processing Trade Policies [J]. Productivity Research, 2.
- Eichengreen, B., & Kohl, R. (1997). The State and the External Sector in Eastern Europe: Implications for Foreign Investment and Outward Processing Trade. In Conference held by the Berkeley Roundtable on the International Economy and the Kreisky Forum for International Dialogue:" Will There Be a Unified European Economy (pp. 5-6).
At around 2000, the titles with "processing trade" increased suddenly. For example, I can cite many papers in the year of 2000 alone.
- Görg, H. (2000). Fragmentation and trade: US inward processing trade in the EU. Weltwirtschaftliches Archiv, 136(3), 403-422.
- Fabbris, T., & Malanchini, F. (2000). Patterns of vertical specialization and European Outward Processing Trade (OPT): a comparative analysis between Mediterranean countries and CEECs. Is there real Competition.
- Baldone, S., Sdogati, F., & Tajoli, L. (2000). Patterns and determinants of international fragmentation of production: Evidence from outward processing trade between the EU and the countries of Central-Eastern Europe (No. 134). Queen Elizabeth House.
- Zhao, C. (2000). Developing overseas investments with overseas processing trade as the new starting point'. Almanac of China’s Foreign Economic Relations and Trade 2000, 45-46.
Of course, processing trade has been discussed inside the text. For example, let me cite papers which appeared before 1990.
- Watanabe, T., & Komiya, R. (1958). Findings from Price Comparisons Principally Japan vs. the United States. Weltwirtschaftliches Archiv, 81-96.
- Murakami, M. (1968). Geographical analysis of the industrialization in Singapore. Geographical Review of Japan, 41(9), 541-570.
- Watanabe, S. (1972). International subcontracting, employment and skill promotion. Int'l Lab. Rev., 105, 425.
- Haitani, K. (1973). Japan's Trade Problem and the Yen. Asian Survey, 723-739.
- Yamazawa, I., & Hirata, A. (1978). Industrialization and External Relations: Comparative Analysis of Japan’s Historical Experience and Contemporary Developing Countries’ Performance. Hitotsubashi Journal of Economics, 18(2), 33-61.
- Nakajō, S. (1980). Japanese direct investment in Asian newly industrializaing countires and intra-firm division of labor. The Developing Economies, 18(4), 463-483.
- Oda, H. (1984). The Administration of Foreign Trade in the People's Republic of China. The Developing Economies, 22(2), 155-168.
- Grunwald, J., & Flamm, K. (1985). The global factory: Foreign assembly in international trade. Brookings Institution Press.
My question is why the notion of "processing trade" did not become major subject matter before 2000. As you see from the list above, early papers on processing trade have been written mainly by Japanese. This can be explained by the fact that promotion of processing trade (加工貿易) has been national policy (or 国是=national principle) for Japan since many years. At the first phase of Meiji period, Japan depended heavily on the exports of Silk and Copper, but soon it started to export cotton textile which was a typical processing trade, as Japan imported cotton flower and processed and exported it.
The story was the same for Great Britain in the time of the Industrial Revolution. It imported cotton from India, United States and others and exported cotton textile. Lionel McKenzie emphasized that "Lancashire would be unlikely to produce cotton cloth if the cotton had to be grown in England" (McKenzie 1954, p.179). Processing trade promotion is also a vital question for newly developing countries now.
Processing trade was one of the most important forms of international trade from the beginning of modern industrial economy. It remains to be so even today. It is enigmatic why this important category of international trade remained in the background until the arrival of fragmentation and global value chain.
Perhaps the easiest answer is to point the lack of trade theory which can treat intermediate or input goods. Despite the fact that McKenzie and Jones pointed the necessity to build a theory of intermediate or input goods, no such general theory was provided during the 20th century. In view of its importance, one may ask again why the theory of input trade was not developed much earlier.
Do you have any good explanation?
Through many discussions in RearchGate, I came to recognize that majority of economists are still deeply influenced by the Friedmanian methodology. An evidence is the fact that they take little care for the economic consistency and relevance of the model. They pay enormous time and efforts in "empirical studies" and discuss the result, but they rarely question if the basic theory on which their model lies is sensible. This ubiquitous tendency gives grave effects in economics: neglect of theory and indulgence in empirics. I wonder why people do not argue this state of economics. Economic science should take back a more suitable balance between theory and empirics.
It is clear that we should distinguish two levels of Friedmanian methodology.
(1) Friedman's methodology and thought that is written in the texts, more specifically in his article The Methodology of Positive Economics (Chapter 7 of Essays in positive economics, 1953).
(2) The methodology that is believed to be Friedan's thought.
Apparently, (2) is much more important for this question. I see dozens of papers that examines Friedmanian methodology based on his text. Many of them detect that widely spread understanding is not correctly reflecting Friedman's original message. They may be right, but what is important is the widely spread belief in the name of Milton Friedman.
This question is a derivative from my other question:
Why did Eaton and Kortum model perform so badly?
The topic International Trade counts (as of September 16, 2015) 99 questions and 6,003 followers. My above question attracted only 50 views and two followers including me (ditto). This state may indicate the general atmosphere of researchers who work on international trade. They are not much interested in the theory.
This indifference in theory problems must really be a serious problem in international trade economics. How do you think about it?
What is the real content of vulgarization, when they claim that J.S. Mill vulgarized Ricardo's teachings? In what sense is he blamed to have opened the way to neoclassical economics?
Béla Balassa once wrote in his paper "Karl Marx and John Stuart Mill" (Weltwirtschaftliches Archiv, Bd. 83, (1959), pp. 147-165):
- Marx's treatment of John Stuart Mill is one of the great puzzles of history of economic thought. Reading Marx (and his followers) one gets the impression that Mill was an insignificant figure whose writings exemplify the "decline" of Ricardian economics. Whenever Marx mentions Mill's name (which does not happen very frequently) he v\never forgets to add some derogatory comment. (p.147)
In another paper (John Stuart Mill and the Law of Markets, The Quarterly Journal of Economics Vol. 73, No. 2 (May, 1959), pp. 263-274) he wrote:
- For present-day economists [Mill] represents a "half-way house" between Ricardo and Marshall; for Marxists he is the apologist personified, sharing the responsibility with many others for the "decline" of Ricardian economics.(p.263)
I wonder why John Stuart Mill was so undully ill-treated by Marx and Marxain economists.
Robert Malthus based his theory of population based on rate of growth of population and rate of food production.
Polanyi's vision of society is evolving and subject to changes through commodification. So his definition of "freedom" can be wrongly percevied as leaning to economic freedom. But I think his destination is highly particular with respect to Hayekian and Marxian views which Polanyi criticizes as being "economistic". The regulationist also, as the midway between, misses many points about Polanyi's approach.
Andrew Beattie in his article "What is the Ricardian Vice" writes:
The Ricardian vice refers to abstract model-building and mathematical formulas with unrealistic assumptions. In simpler terms, the Ricardian vice is the tendency for economists to make and test theories that aren't troubled by the complexities of reality, resulting in theories that are mathematically beautiful but largely useless for practical applications. The Ricardian vice is prevalent in economics and is named after David Ricardo, one of the first economists to bring mathematical rigor to the discipline.
Giorgio Baruchello, in his "answer" (post of Nov 5, 2014) to my question "Why are we all so forgetful? Is the crisis of economics over?", claimed that it was the enduring Ricardian vice which drove modern economics to entrench in formal abstraction and escape from pursuit of any relevance with the reality.
Beatti and Baruchello (and probably many others) are wrong in two points:
(1) they miss Schumpeter's original meaning of Ricardian vice.
(2) What Ricardo (and Keynes) tried to do is the key to escape from the yoke of equilibrium thinking and that of General Equilibrium framework in particular.
Note that what is making economics so abstract and irrelevant is not the Ricardian tradition, but the Walrassian paradigm i.e. General Equilibrium framework. Ricardo and Marshall resorted to Partial Process Analysis (Clower [1975] after Leijonhufvud) or causal chain analysis (whether their trial was successful or not). Schumpeter in his support of Walras tried to suppress and exclude causal reasoning and adopted Walrassian General Equilibrium framework.
Keynes was first based on this custom when he wrote Treatise on Money and earlier version of the General Theory but turned to equilibrium framework, which was the remote cause of his system)'s failure and anti-Keynes revolution in 1970's.
The time he lived, his education, and having been a professor of moral philosophy at the University of Glasgow in the 18th century seemingly might suggest this; however, scholars have different views.
The concept of effective demand was once considered as the most crucial one of Keynes's theory. But, this concept was wiped out from the mainstream economics. It disappeared not only from anti-Keynesian New Classical Macroeconomics, but also from pro-Keynesian New Keynesian Economics either. This must be one of the most enigmatic phenomena in the history of 20th century economics. Can someone give a reasonable account of this phenomenon? What kind of lessons can we draw from this history?
I am wondering why the concept of hoarding has disappeared after Keynes's General Theory. Are there any economists who tried to extricate the concept of Hoarding after Keynes?
The concept of Hoarding was once one of the most important ones. For example, it was an essential part of D. S. Robertson's framework of his monetary theory. However this concept does not play any conspicuous role in the economics after Keynes. It was practically wiped out from economics. As I have observed in my post of December 13, 2014 to my own question "Is saving necessarily invested or not? How can this contradiction in Keynes be solved?" (linked below), it seems that Keynes's Liquidity Preference concept has replaced and wiped out the concept of Hoarding.
I am thinking to save the concept of Hoarding and coin it anew as an essential part of the monetary theory of productions. In that purpose, I want to know the conceptual history of the this notion.
Considering that Keynes was an active speaker of Hayek and that he was politically engaged with issues related to new forms of economic coordination that emerged with the end of the laissez-faire age, why was he absent in the Socialist Economic Calculation Debate conducted by Mises - Lange - Hayek?
Towards the end of General Theory by J. M. Keynes, chapter 23, there is an apparently surprising passage:
"I was brought up to believe that the attitude of the Medieval Church to the rate of interest was inherently absurd, and that the subtle discussions aimed at distinguishing the return on money-loans from the return to active investment were merely Jesuitical attempts to find a practical escape from a foolish theory. But I now read these discussions as an honest intellectual effort to keep separate what the classical theory has inextricably confused together, namely, the rate of interest and the marginal efficiency of capital.
For it now seems clear that the disquisitions of the schoolmen were directed towards the elucidation of a formula which should allow the schedule of the marginal efficiency of capital to be high, whilst using rule and custom and the moral law to keep down the rate of interest."
This passage seems very close to Saint Thomas Aquinas' thought:
Money is not an end but a means of buying goods and services. Putting money out for the generation of more money is an evil unto itself.
(a first contribution to the discussion may be the Massimo Amato's paper presented during the XIV International Economic History Congress, Helsinki 2006 http://www.helsinki.fi/iehc2006/papers2/Amato.pdf )
In Chapter 2 of his General Theory, Keynes states that "it has been supposed that any individual act of abstaining from consumption necessarily leads to, and amounts to the same thing as, causing the labour and commodities thus released from supplying consumption to be invested in the production of capital wealth." He adds that "[this idea] still underlies the whole classical theory, which would collapse without it." It is clear that Keynes denies this doctrine. However, in Chapter 6, Keynes put two equations:
Income = value of output = consumption + investment.
Saving = income - consumption.
This is to say that the income of any person is spent either in consumption or in investment. This is to me an obvious contradiction. What kinds of explanations were made on this point in the past? How can this apparent contradiction be reconciled?
For years I've been frustrated with the textbooks I've seen on Economic History. Either they are focused on Why Countries Develop - and thus on Britain in the 18th and 19th centuries, the US in the 20th and 21st - or else they are focused on a particular region or country. Admittedly, I haven't dedicated a lot of time to an exhaustive search. Are there any recent Economic History books out there that consider the truly global effects of the important events, like the European "discovery" of the Americas, the Industrial Revolution(s), and the Cold War?
There are three functions of money. Yes, that is what the books are telling us. But how can something which contains only a "meaning" of something hold any kind of value? My argumenting line is as follows: value is not real, it is human made. It is more a feeling than anything else. And even if we use some kind of matter which is quite stable in its materialized form, the condition of "keeping its value" is totally outside of this stuff. There are the external conditions, the stable condition of expectations of the inhabitants, and more totally external factors until the final one that is if you want to get something in exchange for this "storage," the other part must be there when you want it (which is a condition not connected to the existence of the medium of "storage of value").
So I would say, any storage of value function is only possible as long as a lot of external conditions are stable. Therefore there is really no possible way of saying "this is a storage of value," because everything of "this" points directly to the external conditions, and not to the medium which is used like a storage of value.
The quantity equation is in general accepted, but seems to be not always valid. Why is this the case? What is causing the failure?
The paper “Reconciling Ricardo’s comparative advantage with Smith’s productivity theory has been posted in the Open Peer Discussion forum of the journal “Economic Thought”. This journal wants to encourage the social and cooperative aspects of research. Thus, the review process is open to any scholar who wants to participate.
The old ciscussion of "The Limits of Growth" is now ongoing for more than 40 years - and rising recently.
I have one small and simple question: Why is there no exact "value" in any metric system used by economists for the limit?
Constructing a bridge gives such a value - 100 tons is ok, 200 is too much, and the bridge will collapse at about 155 tons around.
My point is:
If someone is talking about growth as the only way out of "the financial mess up" ... and someone other is talking about "the limits of growth" ... in what kind o metric language are they talking with each other?
I see a gigantic loophole in the economic theory not having an answer about this - and as far as I see - not even having an discussion about it.
That is why i worked on my theory of using the productively used energy as an expression of the number of working guy (giving at least physical labor to something in an economy to build it up).
Enclosed you find my published paper as a link and an attached slightly updated pdf of the same paper.
There is a debate in some universities on the relevance of studying this history for the new generation of economists.
I am interested in the Kaldor-Kuznets-Solow consensus on the connection between Equity and Economic growth. Does anyone have some good reading suggestions on the subject ?
I am looking for the historical and empirical underpinnings as opposed to the theoretical.