Science topics: LogicHistory and Philosophy of Logic
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History and Philosophy of Logic - Science topic
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I doubt if the principles of logic can be applied universally except when the ontologies of the fields of discussion of the objects under logical treatment are clarified. In commonsense logic everything goes. But is it to be considered so when ordinary logical principles are applied in the various sciences in the various concepts levels being discussed in each of them?
The exercise I'm dealing with asks me to show that by adding S = K to the usual reduction rules for the SKI-calculus, one obtains an inconsistent equivalence. This must be done without using Böhm's theorem.
Now, I've found two terms (not combinators) M and N with the following properties:
M = x
N = y
M can be obtained from N by replacing one or more occurrences of S with K
From the rule S = K we thereby get that M = N, and hence that x = y. Which means that any term can be proved equal to any other.
Do you think such an answer could work? Actually, Böhm's theorem (as shown in the book I am studying) establishes that, for distinct combinators G and H, there is a combinator D such that DxyG = x and DxyH=y. So, I feel it would have been more appropriate to find a combinator D such that Dx1x2S = x_i and Dx1x2K = x_j with i , j = 1 , 2 and i ≠ j. But I have HUGE problems in finding combinators, so I have only found terms respectively reducing to one of the variables, and obtainable one from another by replacing S with K or vice versa.
It was true that mathematics was done in argumentation and discourse or rhetoric in ancient times. The 6 volumes of Euclid’s elements have no symbols in it to describe behaviors of properties at all except for the geometric objects. The symbols of arithmetic: =, +, -, X, ÷ were created in the 15th and 16th centuries which most people hard to believe it - you heard me write. The equality sign “=” and “+,-“ appeared in writing in 1575, the multiplication symbol “X “ was created in 1631, and the division sign “ ÷” was created in 1659. It will be to the contrary of the beliefs of most people as to how recent the creations of these symbols were.
It is because of lack of symbols that mathematics was not developed as fast as it has been after the times where symbols were introduced and representations, writing expressions and algebraic manipulations were made handy, enjoyable and easy.
These things made way to the progress of mathematics in to a galaxy – to become a galaxy of mathematics. What is your take on this issue and your expertise on the chronology of symbol creations and the advances mathematics made because of this?
http://Notation,%20notation,%20notation%20%20a%20brief%20history%20of%20mathematical%20symbols%20%20%20Joseph%20Mazur%20%20%20Science%20%20%20theguardian.com.htm
Are the “Ethics” and metaphysics of Spinoza a good key to understanding the neo-hegelian British systems?