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Cleaning my bookshelf (and eliminating some items), I found a book the title of which ran: "How to read Heidegger" --- My reply: In no way! Do not do that. --- I did it, and I wrote long ago that I had not found in Heidegger anything which seemed to me (1) understandable, (2) true, (3) relevant and (4) new at the same time. --- Why is Heidegger considered a great philosopher? His exotic language does have a poetic dimension, but it looks empty at the level of content.
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Heidegger's philosophy is a significant contribution to understanding the meaning of lived experience.
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The title says it all really. I recently started my journey in continental philosophy, and Heidegger's hermeneutic circle caught my attention quickly. However, I'm not sure what's new about it really? What has been added by Heidegger's understanding of the circle to the field?
I'm slighly perplexed, but I hope some of you will guide me to the right direction
Also, if there are 'readings' that you think is essential for this topic, feel to free to recommend them :-)
Thanks!
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There are many differences between Heidegger and previous versions of the “hermeneutic circle”:
1) Heidegger never recover the “circle of the hole and the part” present in romantic hermeneutics (e. g. Schleiermacher).
2) Heidegger’s version of the circle has an ontological character: Dasein is the being that understands the being he is. In this previous understanding of himself rest also an implicit understanding of being in general, that makes possible the explicit formulation of the question about the sense of being.
3) This ontological aspect of hermeneutics distinguishes Heidegger from Dilthey, who sees hermeneutics as the methodology of spiritual sciences.
4) Heidegger’s formulation of the circle is a critique of the metaphysics of presence and the subject-object relation (an aspect absent on biblical and judicial hermeneutics).  
5) Heidegger develops the pre-structure of understanding (Vorhabe, Vorgrif und Vorsicht), an element absent in previous versions of the circle.
6) In Heidegger’s later thinking the hermeneutic circle is related to the “turn” or “Kehre” of the being itself along the history.
There are also many differences between Heidegger and Gadamer that are not usually mentioned. In the Cambridge Companion to Gadamer, you can find a non-exhaustive comparison between Heidegger’s and Gadamer’s versions in the article by Jean Grondin: “Gadamer’s Basic Understanding of Understanding.
Good luck,
Andrés.
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Has there been a reading of Kant's transcendental aesthetic (particularly the trans. ideality of space) that makes use of our latest empirical findings on the matter? Anything from Visual Phototransduction to Relativity and everything in between.
While using empirical data to justify an argument from first principles seems incoherent, the debate screams for reconciliation.
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Jonathan,
I think Kant's big idea, whether one thinks it's a good one or not, is the idea of a form of sensibility, and thus a form of intuition. (The former is a capacity; the latter is the aspect of presentational content it produces.)  So if we speak in terms of content, not only is it the case (in perceptual contexts) that not all content is conceptual, but the remainder is not mere qualia (or Humean impressions). Intuition itself has form and content: spatiotemporal form (for us) and magnitudes of qualitative content--saturation of color, intensity of pressure. He calls the latter the "matter" of perceptual content. Famously, intuitions are different in kind from conceptual content and cannot be reduced to it. Intuitions are how the matter of experience is given. 
But this idea of the form of intuition, analyzed in the Aesthetic, remains consequential throughout the entire work of the Critique. The categories, to be "deduced", must be shown to be meaningful in terms of space and time. In the Dialectic, metaphysics, as he understands it, (claims about the world-whole, God and self that are made independently of experience), fails precisely because no spatiotemporal interpretation can be given to key aspects of its claims. (This is, in fact, the critique of reason proper, i.e. his critique of metaphysics. And in so far as metaphysics takes on its task using the resources of reasons alone--pure reason--independently of the conditions of sensibility, it ventures into "transcendental illusion." 
(The analysis of the idea of the thing in itself actually gets a treatment similar to these ideas of reason, but there are important disanalogies.)
If we don't generate our own objects (as God might), then we must sense them to some extent, in some manner, in order to be cognitively related to them. In order to distinguish something from oneself, and from something else, he argues, the sensing must have an order. What is sensed must be arrayed in a way adequate to make these distinctions. This is a condition on any finite intellect. (In fact, Kant can be read as saying that this is quite a separate claim from the claim that ourforms of intuition are space and time. The latter may simply be a de facto specification.)  The means to order cannot follow, but must precede, making these distinctions. The means implies its own, sensible, content. The array part. The form. Arguably, this was Kant's big idea.
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Heidegger uses this term in SZ which has been translated in BT (p. 69-70) as "pregnant structures" to differentiate between the use of categories and I think the happenings of Dasein's everyday dealings with the world. Looking at other sources is confusing me as the surrounding language is full of ambiguity. Could someone please explain this to me in simple terms.
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Hi Mary,
In addition to the German etymology and semantic analysis offered by Artur Braun, there are Greek resonances you may wish to consider.
Heidegger specifically points out Aristotle's distinctions between Potentiality and Actuality (SZ 38/BT p. 63): what is essential in a preliminary conception of Phenomenology is not "actuality;" for "Higher than actuality stands possibility." This hints at potentiality beyond the modal character of the Dasein of human beings, as well as beyond ontical Seienden. The venerated "incomparable" Greeks named in the subsequent paragraph are interpreted as essentially concerned with more than the "grammar" of Being as indicated in Plato's Parmenides, Aristotle's Metaphysics, VII, 4, and Thucydides. 
But, actually, those "formal indications" and text locations are not at all "simple" distinctions. Nonetheless, they may render some clarity, depending upon your intentions.
Wishing you fortitude in your researches toward the completion of your Thesis project!
Josef
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In this I mean other profound scholars that have defined hegemony as having the ability to represent those being dominated in a particular regime of representation.
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Also Bourdieu's symbolic violence is pretty much the same. 
And Gayatri Spivak's "Can the Subaltern speak", also treats the same subject - the powerful classes ability to force its signs onto the dominated classes.
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If a proposition is non-analytic (that is, if it denies the existence of anything like categorical truths) is it then necessarily synthetic?  Are there other alternatives?
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FYI: one could categorize all truths as being either true by virtue of meaning (analytic), or else true not solely by virtue of meaning (synthetic). This would cover all the cases. However, people sometimes pack knowledge claims into them, so that some truths are knowable simply by paying proper attention to the meanings, while some truths are knowable by paying proper attention to both the meanings and the world. On this way of defining them, there might be a third kind of truth: unknowable truths.
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There are two pillars of consciousness, that of intentionality, which includes thoughts, ideas, desires, motives and goals. The other side of consciousness is that of phenomena, which includes sensations, perceptions and feelings. These are troublesome for philosophy of mind philosophers because things such as color vision, the redness of red is not physical but is mental; the experience of a red rose is different from the physics of it all, this is related to the "Mary Problem" and what Goethe was pointing out, which is that Newtonian vision theory gives us everything about the theory of light but what we actually see and also perceive as beauty. Another example would be pain. One can pinch another and watch the physics and the biology of it all, but never will that observer 'feel' that other person's pain. The C Fibers can be watched and the damaged tissue, and the signals to the brain but one can't feel the pain of another. Also, ideas and other intentionalities aren't like tables and chairs that you can poke, prod and measure. They seem mental. like perceptions of color and feelings. Furthermore, reasons seem different than physical causes in that if you take a brain, blow it up to the size of a building and walk in what one would see is fat, protein and water, which translates into mostly dendrites, axons and synapses. No where do we "see" and idea. I don't want to debate my metaphysics or my epistemology though please.
However, what I want to know is if these two categories, that of intentionality and phenomena, as described above, fit into what Kant would call the noumenal realm.
Thank you ever so much for any help you may give.
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Stephen,
I think the sorts of things you mention are not what Kant has in mind when he speaks of noumena. For one thing, for Kant, noumena cannot be sensed; they have no sensible properties. The things you mention have temporal extension, which for Kant, along with spatial extension, is the very form of sensibility.
We are able to think of things independently of their sensible properties, according to Kant. Something may appear in space and time, but it may also be considered, independently of this appearing and the sensible conditions of this appearing, as the thing which is the source of the appearance. We can only know it (cognize it) as it appears in space and time, says Kant, but we can think of it independently of these conditions, as the thing in itself.
Some writers have taken pains not to equate the thing in itself with the noumenon, despite the fact that neither can be sensed. Part of the reason for this, I think, has to do with the role the notion of a noumenon plays in Kant's theory of freedom. For more on the distinction between the thing in itself and the noumenon see ch. 3 of Henry Allison's "Kant's Transcendental Idealism."
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Fichte and Shelling.
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German Idealism evolved from Hegel's historical dialectics. Hegel tried to attribute reality to Kant's transcendental philosophy. Therefore Hegel introduced time as a substantial method to make the link between ideas and the implementation of ideas by reality. Boths parts were in positive opposite, while Fichte and Schelling put both reality and idea in a differential relation. In fact they prepared the highway for the philosophical deconstruction formulated by Derrida and reduced the philosophical reality to a preliminairy reality.
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I find myself going in a paradoxical loop when I think about the distinctions. Insofar that it seems that the two need each other instead of one being valid over another.
For example, let us begin by accepting Kant's refutation of t.realism. T. idealism allows us to demarcate between noumena and phenomena. The phenomena is of an empirical idealist existence. Yet my question is, does not the intersubjectivity constituted out of empirical idealism create a type of transcendental realism? As soon as he puts the thought to paper, and write a symbol to be interpreted by another, does he not instantiate an existence that he previously refuted?
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If the critique of transcendental realism is simply the recognition that we do not have unmitigated access to the world as it is in itself anyone who thinks it through will I believe subscribe to that critique. All human knowledge we know anything about is "all to human". Even contemporary physicists are constantly coming up with a kind of sense of "What are things REALLY made of?" TR is a no-brain er. But it is worth taking into account that it is a no-brain er. It's a recognition of our epistemic limitation.
On the other hand, Kant's Noumena as I understand it, is simply the unknown. When Mathew speaks of the phenomenal as empirical idealist existence it seems that he is attributing that to Kant. I have some sympathy with that accusation but I know that Kant would horrified to find that it might be true. For ironically empirical idealism has more than a suspicious Berkely-an sound to it. Kant regarded that kind of idealism a monstrosity.
I myself have little problem with any of that anymore because I believe that everything that is, is real but in different ways. Myths are real myths, dreams are real dreams, One really does win or lose a game, even if a game is not an object, it is not something one can pick up or ask what it is made of. There is an important sense in which winning and loosing are subjective. What kind of reality is the game, if it is not an inter-subjective phenomenon, or maybe preferably in my opinion, an inter-subjective reality, like a conversation, or a communal celebration or a...... .
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I understand there are critiques about his notion of life-world and epoche. I need some clarity on what the problems are exactly.
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Hi Mathew,
As Fink writes in his/Husserl's 6th, phenomenology has to be experienced, not read. He goes on to emphasize that reading rather experiencing leads to the bewildering feeling of looking at a bedazzling text written queer language that does not yield any clarity or understanding. Furthermore, Husserl's body of work represents a process of experimenting with phenomenological thinking rather than a coherent system of thought and this might be proved as confusing even more. Here are my $.02 on how to start, they represent my own experience and yours is likely to be different and reflective of your natural attitude and lifeworld. Husserl's starting point was mathematics and the origin of logic and he devoted most of his energy to dissect the roots of logical thought. Since you are most interested in the methodological aspects of phenomenology (which Fink considers as the theory of method) I recommend that you start with Husserl's 5th, continue with Heidegger's basic problems of phenomenology and then move to Fink's 6th. Fink attempted to close the gaps in Heidegger's and Husserl's views of phenomenology and built a better (my personal view) platform combining both. As a companion text, I would look at Bruzina's excellent research on Husserl and Fink and peek at Schutz's investigations of the lifeworld. In any case, my recommendation is start your own reduction as soon as possible and as you read the texts so that you will be thinking and swimming at the same time. The longer path in the natural realm is the shortest in the transcendental. Pending on your level of interest and dedication, this might take longer than you think so take a deep breath and prepare for a marathon.
Good luck and hope it helps,
Ronnen
PS
I would wait with the French phenomenological offspring until completing the above.
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I see Gadamer's philosophy in Truth and Method as radar.
An event happens we get certain signals. Based on these signals we send out a response (our response is heavily laden with language that plays us). This response hits the event and we get returned feedback. We recalculate and send back another response, this time we get a slightly nuanced feedback. We repeat this "dialogue" and eventually we get a sense of the form of this "thing".
The next time an event "like this" happens, based on the historicity of our being we know to engage it such manner. Yet, this case shows something different of the "thing" and so our knowledge of the thing grows yet is always revealing previously hidden realms.
Am I way off here?
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Two important concepts for Gadamer complicate the account of understanding given above. Prejudice, or a fore structure of meanings with which we approach a text within a tradition of interpretation. Secondly distanciation, the process by which the text severs it's connection with the author, context, and time. He is reacting against the epistemological hermeneutics of Dilthey, and denying that you can develop a method for achieving authorial meanings. Ontological hermeneutics is basically claiming to tell us what happens to us every time we understand a text, that is, we achieve a fusion of horizons..