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It's all in the question, really. This topic must have been raised and discussed before, but I can't seem to find a good reference just yet. I'm writing this paper where I make the case for a distinct construction (based, among other arguments, on the fact that its frequency has been increasing significantly over the years). But the still (arguably) low raw figures make the reviewers tick. I argue that the numbers in question are *not* low (especially because they now represent 17.5% of the uses of the main lexical at the heart of that construction). But I was hoping maybe there would be references that precisely discuss this issue, and especially that 'low' figures are still relevant (i.e. 'frequent enough') if they constitute a significant portion of an item's distribution. Any idea? Thanks!
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Yes, many thanks for your answer, Svetlana Medvedeva!
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The most venerable professors and research scholars
Your critical comments, valuable opinions, scientific facts and thoughts, and supportive discussion on how can structural grammar and IC analysis be justified in the recent pedagogical and enhancement trends in EIP for EFL adult learners.
I shall be thankful sincerely for your kind participation.
Best,
Dr. Meenakshi
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In my opinion, it will depend on to what extent the language learner would like to view how the language works. I would say that if we opt to view language from the perspective of medium/tool in conveying messages or communication; incorporating structural grammar and IC analysis are beneficial to use the grammar correctly within the exact communication function to deliver the correct message by the encoder to the decoder.
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i am wondering whether someone actually built an (adaptive) language learning software based on the cue competition model by brian macwhinney
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Dear Hasan Abu-Krooz this sounds interesting. would you share your work with us?
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Hi fellow researchers in cognitive lingustics. I am currently finishing my book on the teaching of phrasal verbs from an Applied Cognitive Construction Grammar framework. In order to reach the widest audience possible, I would like to translate the book's one-page preface into several languages, starting with Chinese (Mandarin, Cantonese) and Russian. If anyone is interested, please, download the attached file (other languages are also welcome). It goes without saying that the sources of the selected translations will be included in the book (plus a big "thanks" in the acknowledgements section). In addition, I will send a free interactive PDF of the book to those who generously collaborate with me in this task. Thanks to those interested.
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Applied Cognitive Construction Grammar (ACCxG) describes an approach to pedagogical grammar that stresses the pivotal role of speaker-meaning rather than the definition of an exhaustive inventory of constructions available to speakers in the linguistic system.
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This question comes from a simple observation that really puzzles me.
Constructions (in CxG) are defined as form-function pairings. My focus here is not so much on the function of constructions but rather on their form. If we take the ditransitive construction (as in I sent her a letter), for instance, it is often described to have the form in (1). However, in the literature, you also often find the form of the ditransitive construction to be discussed as in (2), as the ‘double-object’ construction.
(1) NP  V  NP  NP
(2) SUBJ  V  OBJ  OBJ2
The problem for me is that in (2), the 'form' of the ditransitive construction is not described in terms of syntactic properties (such as ‘NP’), but in terms of functional properties (an object is a function, not a form). So my question is simple: why use the description in (2), a semantic/functional description, instead of the description in (1) to talk about the formal properties of the ditransitive construction? Is there a particular purpose for using one instead of the other? Or is it simply because (1) might fail to properly differentiate the ditransitive construction from other syntactic patterns? (e.g. They elected him president, also an <NP V NP NP> pattern, yet supposedly instantiating a different (resultative?) construction) And in the latter case, is that not a problem for the theory?
These questions may have to do with the syntax/semantics interface, but should CxG therefore not address these questions more explicitely?
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Hi Benoît,
Yes, it's true that (2), SUBJ V OBJ OBJ2, looks less formal and more functional than (1), NP V NP NP. However, just because 'Subject', 'Direct Object', etc. are often referred to as grammatical 'functions', this doesn't mean that we can truly see them as (purely) 'functional' or semantic. Rather, as I know you know, the semantic aspect of the ditransitive construction is formulated in terms of, in the prototypical case, thematic roles such as 'agent', 'recipient' and 'patient'/'theme', and Jackendovian primitives such as CAUSE and RECEIVE. 
Besides, 'SUBJ' etc. may capture more cases than just 'NP', the latter being only a typical but not the exclusive way in which subjects can be instantiated. The subject in the ditransitive construction could also be a clause: 
(3) [That Trump is now the President of the US] gives [many people] [a headache].
Likewise, OBJ2 could also be a clause:
(4) [The teacher] told [the pupils] [that they would go on a picnic].
That is why it's preferable, perhaps, to formulate the syntactic side of argument structure constructions in terms of grammatical functions rather than phrase-structure categories (maximal projections). Another advantage is the one you mention, namely that there might be semantically different constructions, notably the one instantiated by e.g.They elected him president, share the same (preferential) phrase structure categories as the ditransitive.
Finally, and related to this, by labelling the elements as 'SUBJ', '(Indirect) OBJ', etc., we have a more precise of how these constituents behave syntactically. For instance, we know that the element labelled as a (Direct) Object (i.e. OBJ2) might quite likely be used as the SUBJ in a corresponding passive sentence, something which is not the case for the second post-verbal NP in the construction we find in They elected him president:
(5) That they would go on a picnic was told to the pupils.
(6) *President was elected to him.
So, labels such as 'SUBJ', 'OBJ', etc. are quite formal things after all. They just name different aspects of 'form' or 'syntax' than labels such as 'NP' do.
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I am wondering whether it is possible for a construction (and in particular more schematic/grammatical ones) to be realized by slightly different forms.
I seem to have identified a construction which has developped a second meaning. However, the use of the construction with this second meaning also involves a change in formal properties.
Shall I still consider this to be a case of polysemy?
The two meanings are without any doubt related.
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Hi all,
I think most CxG approaches would like to have one 'form' and one 'meaning', if we're to stick to the form-meaning pairing type of definition for constructions. But I would definitely agree that both orders of the particle verb construction instantiate the same discontinuous particle verb on some level. I think we need to keep in mind that multiple constructions are being instantiated simultaneously in the "heat the room up" case.
I would say: 'heat up' is a complex verb, instantiating its own construction (the lexical, 'heat up' construction) and a more abstract partially filled 'phrasal verb with up (V+up)' construction, as well as a completely abstract phrasal verb construction. On top of that, the verb is transitive, which allows for the object NP. For all phrasal verbs, the transitive construction generalizes to allow combinations with NPs before or after the particle. The rules governing the distribution of the variants generalize well across verbs (e.g. pronoun object precedes particle). A very detailed study is Gries (2003), which shows that the constraints and meaning are shared, though different features favor different positions.
If we don't allow intervening material in constructions, we won't be able to accept the identity of a split infinitive (to quickly go) and a regular one (to go quickly). More generally, very many constructions, especially in the Germanic languages and their linguistic traditions, as mentioned by Hans, allow rather many orders, but the meaning is retained. This is discussed in some length by Stefan Müller (2013), who gives the example of 'noisy motion' constructions in German. In German you can say the equivalent of:
1. The tram squeaked around the corner
2. The around-the-corner-squeaking of the tram
Both forms instantiate the form meaning pairing of the noise verb + location PP to mean 'make noise of V by moving at location PP'. But 1. also instantiates a normal present declarative, and 2. instantiates a nomen actionis construction. You don't necessarily need deep structures to express these facts: constructions can be described in terms of the cues that trigger our recognition of them (in this case the form is 'noise verb' + location PP), whereas complete sentences can be formed by combining multiple constructions at multiple levels of abstraction. 
References:
Gries, S. T. (2003). Multifactorial Analysis In Corpus Linguistics: A Study of Particle Placement. London and New York: Continuum.
Müller, S. (2013). Unifying everything: Some remarks on simpler syntax, construction grammar, minimalism, and HPSG. Language 89(4), 920–950.
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I’m working on a paper on Likert-type scales, as well as a statistical measure/test that sort of emerged by accident whilst working on the paper. However, I was hoping for some preliminary feedback (and what better place for such information as RG?). Specifically, the following are basically universally accepted by specialists whose fields are closely related to the matter:
1) There exists no 1-to-1 mapping between a word in a source language and a word in a target language. More simply, translation always involves information loss.
2) If we throw out the substantial evidence that lexemes aren’t the basic unit of language (and choose not to adopt a construction grammar), we are still left with polysemy
Linguists on opposite sides of the fence, such as Jackendoff and Langacker, still agree that “words” are encyclopedic: there isn’t any mapping from a word to some “unit” of knowledge, information, brain activity, etc. That’s why, if one looks in a dictionary, one finds words defined by other words.
3) Even if we accept the modern version of grandmother neurons (“concept cells” that have been found to respond selectively to e.g., specific people in ways that have lead some researchers to claim that there exists a 1-to-1 mapping between such cells and concepts, nobody believes (and it is an empirically validated falsehood) that there exists any mapping between the conceptual representation via neural activity in one brain to that in another.
4) Finally, language is intricately involved in shaping thought and knowledge, in particular through the relationship of constructions (or lexemes, phrasal nouns, collocations, etc.) and concepts. However, there isn’t any 1-to-1 mapping between a particular instantiation of lexemes in a particular construction that is sufficiently stable such that an individual can separate the scale (which is usually completely conceptual, although sometimes also empirical as in e.g., frequency) from the individual responses (whether only the endpoints are labeled or all possible responses are) and keep these conceptual domains distinct. In other words, the items necessarily force the respondent’s novel conceptualization, making it impossible to treat a single participant’s response to a single item as somehow remotely precise.
What, then, is the justification for treating all participant responses as infinitely precise and corresponding to the exact same values as if all participants were observations of a single value?
Thanks for any and all input!
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The problem is that it isn't really just an issue of a problem between source and target language. It is quite literally a problem of fundamental error/information loss for every item for every participant, because there is no way of approximating the quantification of measurement error when one forces a conceptual response to be utterly devoid of semantic content. I've quite literally scrolled through the scans from an fMRI study in progress (before the fancy statistical image processing produces what is supposed to indicate significant activation is added in) and seen participants neural responses differ when it comes to the same question within half hour and hour blocks.
So, again, what is the theoretical justification for pretending that a theory of measurement (which we have largely abandoned in terms of the original justification; hence "Likert-type" and the general lack of research justifying Likert over Thurstone, let alone any general theoretical bases for treating conceptual responses as purely formal) actually measures what it is claimed to? All measurements are imperfect. That's a given. What's important is the capacity to quantify error. We don't have the capacity to approach the nature of "error" in this case, so instead we simply pretend our "measurement" is infinitely precise and all statistical analyses performed are essentially summations of unknown quantities of error for every item from every participant. Unless, of course, we have some theoretical justification. Hence my question. But referring to the potential to vaguely map source constructions to target constructions in translation isn't, so far as I can tell, anything remotely resembling theoretical justification. 
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I'm reading about context free grammar and i recognized how to eliminate the left recursion but i did not find out what is the problem with left recursion?? can any one explain 
Thanks in advance
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Dear Ahmed
the problem with left recursion, from a computational linguistics point of view, is that it leads to infinite recursion, as mentioned in other posts. And, sadly, linguists do tend to write an awful lot of such rules, as the example below shows (a very naive DCG grammar for English relative clauses). If you 'consult' this grammar with swi-prolog, all will apparently run smooth because swi-prolog can deal with such recursive rules appropriately. If you submit the following  goal "s([the,man,that,he,knows,sleeps],[]).", you'll get "true" as an answer. But, if you ask swi-prolog to search for more results (";"), then you'll get an "Out of local stack" error because of the left-recursion. 
The general strategy is "transform your left-recursive rules into right-recursive ones". It means you must tweak your grammar to eliminate such left-recursive rules and transform them into right-recursive ones, with the help of an intermediate non-terminal (cf. for eg. http://web.cs.wpi.edu/~kal/PLT/PLT4.1.2.html). 
From an algorithmic point of view, different approaches have been published, in order to deal with such left-recursive rules (as said earlier, this is how linguists spontaneously write formal grammars). If you're looking for algorithms, you can have a look at Bob Moore's paper http://research.microsoft.com/pubs/68869/naacl2k-proc-rev.pdf.
s --> np, vp.
np --> det, n.
np --> np, relc.%this is a left-recursive rule
relc --> pror, pro, vt.
vp --> vi.
vp --> vt, np.
det --> [the].
n --> [man].
pro --> [he].
pror --> [that].
vt --> [knows].
vi --> [sleeps].
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Hello to all. I can't find any contributions to machine translation using pregroup grammar or Lambek calculus, on the net. I am working on this and wanted to know if there is any literature.
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Dear Muhammad ,
please find  the file in the attachment.
hope it helps .
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Dear all,
I am currently in the process of drafting a new research project on the use of Spanish subject personal pronouns. Basically, I am the only one at my university who is working on Hispanic Sociolinguistics, so I don't have any collegues to discuss my ideas with. Therefore, I would want to ask the research community for their thoughts on the attached research project.
Thanks in advance,
Jeroen Claes.
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Hello Jeroen,
I have a friend in the Central University of Venezuela who studied that very subject in Caraca's spoken Spanish. Here's the link to one of his articles, maybe you will find it useful: http://saber.ucv.ve/ojs/index.php/rev_n/article/view/6901/6641
Don't hesitate to reach out, should you need any help,
Good luck!
Natalia
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I read the following example in one of my professors notes.
1) we have a SLR(1) Grammar G as following. we use SLR(1) parser generator and generate a parse table S for G. we use LALR(1) parser generator and generate a parse table L for G.
S->AB
A->dAa
A-> lambda (lambda is a string with length=0)
B->aAb
Solution: the number of elements with R (reduce) in S is more than L.
but in one site I read:
2) Suppose T1, T2 is created with SLR(1) and LALR(1) for Grammar G. if G be a SLR(1) Grammar which of the following is TRUE?
a) T1 and T2 has not any difference.
b) total Number of non-error entries in T1 is lower than T2
c) total Number of error entries in T1 is lower than T2
Solution:
The LALR(1) algorithm generates exactly the same states as the SLR(1) algorithm, but it can generate different actions; it is capable of resolving more conflicts than the SLR(1) algorithm. However, if the grammar is SLR(1), both algorithms will produce exactly the same machine (a is right).
any one could describe for me which of them is true?
EDIT: infact my question is why for a given SLR(1) Grammar, the parse table of LALAR(1) and SLR(1) is exactly the same, (error and non-error entries are equal and number of reduce is equal) but for the above grammar, the number of Reduced in S is more than L.
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Perhaps my tutorial on compiling theory might help you:
In particular, take a look at the syntax section.
If you want to do experiments yourself, our jaccie tool plus additional documentation can be found at:
Happy experimenting!
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It seems that Construction Grammar generally assumes a rather strictly vertical/hierarchical structure, from more substantial to more schematic levels, such that a given item instantiates one (and only one) construction on the next higher level of abstraction.
Is there any formalization of 'horizontal links', such as a similarity in only form or only meaning, but not both?
And could there be a "constructional polygamy", e.g. for structurally ambiguous cases, which could instantiate more than one abstract construction? (To try an example: "All that money I have to spend" could be deontic 'have to V' as well as transitive 'have X' + to-infinitive, so it might 'activate' both constructions...)
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Hi David, 
This is an interesting paper on the topic by Freek Van de Velde: Degeneracy: the maintenance of constructional networks (publ. in 2012). I also recommend the upcoming paper by Holger DIessel: "The network metaphor of usage-based construction grammar".