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Hi there,
looking for comparative research regarding the respect for the concept of nature, animals, and plants for the major world religions. Differences between e.g. Abrahamic Religions, Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism, and other religions seem to be there.
Cherish your insights.
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Here some reading meterial may be helpful on religious diversity
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Hello researchers, I was requested to provide some bibliography on Jesus' life as it appears in the Gospels. The point is that the emphasis must be on the story side of His life rather than on a theological approach of It. I would appreciate very much if you could direct me towards some works with online text available or even towards some patristic comments regarding this issue. Thank you!
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You may find a good sinthesis of non biblical testimonies about Jesus in this link.
If you prefer an historical explanation of the Gospel, you may find useful Brand Pitre's book:
In spanish, for a first approach to main aspects:
There is more specialized bibliography on this issue, of course.
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If so, how? If not, why not?
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Thank you Edward Greenstein ..
Yes, there is a clear difference in the nature of the conflict between the gods in the ancient Iraqi and Zoroastrian religions..but the commonality is the existence of the principle of conflict between the gods..Marduk’s conflict with Tahamat represents a conflict between the god of good and the god of evil, so there is no issue of “conflict” in the ancient religions. Which preceded Zoroastrianism except for the ancient Iraqi religions... Therefore, we can say that Zoroastrianism developed the concept of the struggle of the gods among the Iraqis in the form that appeared in the form of "Metra" and "Ahura Mazda"... and this is what I mean
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Why or why not?
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Is human language adequate to describe Harry Potter? :)
Of course, it is. Which other language can be used to describe the characters of fiction, written by humans for humans?
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Was the Great Flood [Biblical] a result of Global Warming.
Was it a cataclysmic event?
Was it predictable?
Was it survivable?
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The Great Flood was a catastrophic event. It has nothing to do with the so-called "global warming"
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I'm interested in a variety of religious perspectives.
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So Virgil Matthews may be you are "soulless"?
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In view of modern science, I realize that Adam could not have been the first human being. But was there still a historical Adam who served as the first theologically significant human being (i.e., the first one to represent the human race before God)? Or is Adam a purely literary character?
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Interesting
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This is a key question in epistemology.
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First some questions to the title of your question:
[1] What do you exactly mean by <what appears>?
[2] What do you exactly mean by <truth>?
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How is your answer compatible with the perfection of God?
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Dear Kirk,
Jesus is consubstantial with God, the Father. Jesus suffered according to the Bible. Thus, God may suffer.
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It's easy to make an argument that particular claims recorded in a scripture are factually true (one just needs to use the standard historical criteria of authenticity). But a writing containing truth, even if it is completely error-free, isn't necessarily divinely inspired. So is it possible to successfully argue for divine inspiration? If so, how?
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I notice when discussing the Bible, etc, as divinely inspired the good parts only are selected for proof and reverence. In fact do they not also contain immense violence? Massacres and genocides? Are these too divine and approved of and adherred to events?
2:23 And he went up from thence unto Bethel: and as he was going up by the way, there came forth little children out of the city, and mocked him, and said unto him, Go up, thou bald head; go up, thou bald head.2:24 And he turned back, and looked on them, and cursed them in the name of the LORD. And there came forth two she bears out of the wood, and tare forty and two children of them.
Few children torn apart in the name of YHWH-doesn't matter maybe?
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If intrinsic, then Scripture is the Word of God no matter whether anyone reads it or responds to it. If instrumental, then Scripture becomes the Word of God when God chooses to use it to generate an encounter with himself.
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Dear Kirk, I think the differentiation makes no sense. All scriptures finally are "Gods Word" in "Human words", because there is no "Divine Language" or if there is such thing, to understand it we have to translate it into human language. To differentiate an instrumental from an intrinsic makes no sense, because all forms of communications finally want to come from a sender to an receiver with the end that the receiver understands something, if not, it is a senseless communication, and than even the question if it exists or not, if it is possible or not, is irrelevant. So talking about Gods Word always implies a sense and therefore never can be intrinsic. The other term "instrumental" or "funcional" is for me a missleading conception, because does not appreaciate sufficiently the human nature with it's liberty. We should conceive revelations more in dialogic model or structure.
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Why or why not?
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The counterexample being, profound religious faith can also lead to not grappling with the world's problems, on the principle that God will provide the solutions. Not pretending to make any sort of scholarly argument here, I am merely stating something that I have observed, on more than just a few occasions.
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Why or why not?
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This happens all the time, and the problem is your definition of "correct." The most obvious example being, of course, religiously-motivated terrorism. And religiously-motivated mutilation. Or how about arranged marriages? Many people find these practices to be morally correct. That's the problem.
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My research leads me to conclude that in Acts 2, xenolalia is focalized and then twice equated with the promised Spirit experience and finally prescribed as normative for initiation. I am looking for flaws in this analysis, in particular, in the equation of xenolalia with the promised Spirit experience. Any feedback would be much appreciated! The full argument is found in my Chapter 4 paper on xenolalia as a community boundary marker.
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Hi Kirk, the difficulty with reading 20:22 as the definitive giving of the Spirit is nicely summarized here: http://julianfreeman.ca/articles/misgivings-holy-spirit
In a nutshell, Jesus is not yet ascended back to the Father and consequently John’s story (see 15:26, for example) doesn’t allow for the Spirit, in the sense of the Paraclete or the 14:17 indwelling, to be given. Jesus simply instructed his disciples to receive the Spirit. One could also understand Jesus as imparting a preliminary experience of the Spirit, but not what John understands as the Paraclete or indwelling (14:17). Concepts one and two above are not mutually exclusive.
Regarding Pentecost, you may remember that Peter promised the crowd the same thing that the 120 got if the crowd would repent and be baptised. Luke then tells us that 3000 were baptised. That means that 3000 individuals got into a queue (a line) and were immersed in water one by one. This took a fair amount of organising and time. There was a liminal ritual initiation proces. For a short period of time, the new members of the queue had believe, but had not been baptised nor had they received the Spirit, for that was contingent upon repentance and baptism. As each approached the water, he or she could see the people ahead being immersed and then receiving the Spirit, with glossolalic Spirit possession just like the Apostles. Finally, everyone had been immersed and had received/been possessed by the Spirit. Peter, in 2:38-39, made this individual reception of/possession by the Spirit a part of Christian initiation not just for the Pentecost crowd, but for all for all time. It is therefore normative for all new converts.
May I recommend my book, Ritual Water, Ritual Spirit (Paternoste, 2017). I think you will find it helpful in reviewing the literature and analysing the text using literar and discourse analysis.
I am currently working on anthropological approaches to Spirit expereinventing in Luke-Acts, hence the terminology ‘Spirit possession’.
I‘d love to keep in touch.
Best wishes!
David
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It doesn't affect my teaching one way or the other. Since I believe in divine-human confluent authorship of Scripture, the authority of the text isn't altered by whether Paul or one of Paul's disciples wrote the Pastorals.
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The point is: How does Judaism read the Song of Songs, a song of love? What is the place that this book finds in the Torah? Furthermore, if the theological general principle is that "God wishes to be exalted only by Israel" and "Israel alone knows God as God has made himself known, which is in the Torah", how does Israel  elicit God's love?
Means Israel "those that love and are loved by God"?
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"Judaism" does not maintain one single view on Song of Songs. The book invites allegorical interpretation, and many different readings have been proposed. In my paper, "Saving the Soul by Knowing the Soul" (which should be posted here on RG) I discuss one avenue taken by medieval Yemenite scholars.
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I am reading Mark Smith's "The Priestly Vision of Genesis 1" (2010) and finding it very frustrating.  He is so convinced that P wrote the account in the 6th century he doesn't bother to tell us why he is so sure.  I am not much disposed to believe in P, J  JE, RJE etc etc considering the fiasco that is the story of Q.  What is the evidence?  Note that I say "composed",  not "written"?  One issue is the canonical text and its editor.  Another issue is the set of sources the editor used.  A third issue of great importance is how the editor used his sources,  and what creative freedom he allowed himself.
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Hi Roger.  It seems to me that you do not read the Creation accounts correctly when you insist that Moses intends you to understand that the "seven days" are each "24 hour days". 
It seems to me that Moses was perfectly well aware of metaphorical usage,  as when he spoke of "the eyes of the LORD" (Deut.11:12),  which King David echoed (Psalm 34:15):  does God have eyes?  Obviously not,  since he created them!  But God certainly sees, as Moses said memorably in Psalm 90:  "A thousand years in your sight are like a day just gone past".  In the Creation account the sun was created only on the fourth day:  but the sun is God's timekeeper with the specific office of "marking the seasons, days, and years" (Gen.1:14),  so how long was the first day?  It seems to me that Moses intends us to answer this question with the correct "God knows".  In what way, taking the text seriously,  can we be more specific?
On the date of Creation,  and your dismissive remarks about "deep time",  I would like to know how you gloss the cosmic microwave background?
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The apologetic character of OT theologies came to my mind when I read G.L. Bauer's Theologie des ATs, Leipzig in 1796 and realized the context of it. It definitely is a reaction to the Enlightenment, there was not a single OT theology in the Middle ages. What is the agenda of OT theologies of today?
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I would like to make a suggestion so long as there seems to be consideration of who has influenced who. The most important source for the Jewish, Christian, and Islamic understanding of the world, theology, and philosophy would have to be the Zoroastrians. The dramatic shift in Judaism with the return from exile in Babylon cannot be mistaken, nor should it be ignored.
It was the contact with the Persians over a 70-year period that changed many things in the way the Jewish scriptures would be written, understood, and applied. Most of the Jewish scriptures were not written down until after the return from exile. One should note that the reading of the first 5 books of the Jewish scriptures was presented to mostly ignorant non-literate and non-practicing members of the community in Israel. There is no doubt that the influence on Christianity and eventually Islam was tremendous. When the Jewish royalty returned from exile they brought with them the concepts of monotheism, life after death, the resurrection, heaven and hell, final judgment, the devil, and the cataclysmic end of the world. That is influence! It does seem to me that attempting to show a backwards influence of Christianity and Islam on the Jewish scriptures is somewhat misplaced. However, I do think that no religion grows in a vacuum, and all neighboring faith communities have influenced each other to some degree. There seems to be a migration of religious thought to help accommodate events that do not fit the paradigm of the religion.
Please know my thoughts are submitted in humility and no offense is intended.
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I would like to assist a colleague who has to develop a substantiated answer as to how this well accepted theory might affect way one interprets Deuteronomy and ultimately may alter the true meaning.
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Sorry for the hopeless typing "the most 'god words'"