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Dear experts,
is it derived from the hanging gardens?
Excuse the framing of the question, agnostic perspective, which may be wrong.
Cherish your expertise.
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Quite apart from the historico-critical answers to this question, there is a psycho-dynamic issue: namely, the deep-seated longing for a situation where all is unspoilt by human error/wrong-doing. Every parent has this hope/longing for a new-born child.
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Hi there,
looking for comparative research regarding the respect for the concept of nature, animals, and plants for the major world religions. Differences between e.g. Abrahamic Religions, Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism, and other religions seem to be there.
Cherish your insights.
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Yes, there are differences in many sectors.
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If so, how? If not, why not?
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Thank you Edward Greenstein ..
Yes, there is a clear difference in the nature of the conflict between the gods in the ancient Iraqi and Zoroastrian religions..but the commonality is the existence of the principle of conflict between the gods..Marduk’s conflict with Tahamat represents a conflict between the god of good and the god of evil, so there is no issue of “conflict” in the ancient religions. Which preceded Zoroastrianism except for the ancient Iraqi religions... Therefore, we can say that Zoroastrianism developed the concept of the struggle of the gods among the Iraqis in the form that appeared in the form of "Metra" and "Ahura Mazda"... and this is what I mean
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I must write an article in which I have to compare contemporary understanding of oikology with biblical understanding of the matter but I had a really hard time finding bibliography. I could really use a little help if anyone has any recommendations on writings on the matter. It would be very helpful anything on biblical/ancient oikology written preferably in Romanian/English/German/Italian language.
Thank you.
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I think this is better. sorry for suggesting a article for request after all. Enjoy the read.
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In view of modern science, I realize that Adam could not have been the first human being. But was there still a historical Adam who served as the first theologically significant human being (i.e., the first one to represent the human race before God)? Or is Adam a purely literary character?
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Interesting
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Dear colleagues involved in the subject of the use of  for coupling antibodies onto surface of the gold nanoparticles, please,  provide  me the information  of the biblical studies known to them, from which I could establish, how the number of antibodies coupled onto surface of the gold nanoparticle have influence to the sensitivity of the LFIA method.
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Dear Anna, you need to test the differences, it is impossible to predict the performance of the antibody after coupling as every antibody is unique. Some antibodies get inactivated during coupling as their binding site gets blocked, others work just perfect. So you need to test this (each time).
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It's easy to make an argument that particular claims recorded in a scripture are factually true (one just needs to use the standard historical criteria of authenticity). But a writing containing truth, even if it is completely error-free, isn't necessarily divinely inspired. So is it possible to successfully argue for divine inspiration? If so, how?
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I notice when discussing the Bible, etc, as divinely inspired the good parts only are selected for proof and reverence. In fact do they not also contain immense violence? Massacres and genocides? Are these too divine and approved of and adherred to events?
2:23 And he went up from thence unto Bethel: and as he was going up by the way, there came forth little children out of the city, and mocked him, and said unto him, Go up, thou bald head; go up, thou bald head.2:24 And he turned back, and looked on them, and cursed them in the name of the LORD. And there came forth two she bears out of the wood, and tare forty and two children of them.
Few children torn apart in the name of YHWH-doesn't matter maybe?
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My research leads me to conclude that in Acts 2, xenolalia is focalized and then twice equated with the promised Spirit experience and finally prescribed as normative for initiation. I am looking for flaws in this analysis, in particular, in the equation of xenolalia with the promised Spirit experience. Any feedback would be much appreciated! The full argument is found in my Chapter 4 paper on xenolalia as a community boundary marker.
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Hi Kirk, the difficulty with reading 20:22 as the definitive giving of the Spirit is nicely summarized here: http://julianfreeman.ca/articles/misgivings-holy-spirit
In a nutshell, Jesus is not yet ascended back to the Father and consequently John’s story (see 15:26, for example) doesn’t allow for the Spirit, in the sense of the Paraclete or the 14:17 indwelling, to be given. Jesus simply instructed his disciples to receive the Spirit. One could also understand Jesus as imparting a preliminary experience of the Spirit, but not what John understands as the Paraclete or indwelling (14:17). Concepts one and two above are not mutually exclusive.
Regarding Pentecost, you may remember that Peter promised the crowd the same thing that the 120 got if the crowd would repent and be baptised. Luke then tells us that 3000 were baptised. That means that 3000 individuals got into a queue (a line) and were immersed in water one by one. This took a fair amount of organising and time. There was a liminal ritual initiation proces. For a short period of time, the new members of the queue had believe, but had not been baptised nor had they received the Spirit, for that was contingent upon repentance and baptism. As each approached the water, he or she could see the people ahead being immersed and then receiving the Spirit, with glossolalic Spirit possession just like the Apostles. Finally, everyone had been immersed and had received/been possessed by the Spirit. Peter, in 2:38-39, made this individual reception of/possession by the Spirit a part of Christian initiation not just for the Pentecost crowd, but for all for all time. It is therefore normative for all new converts.
May I recommend my book, Ritual Water, Ritual Spirit (Paternoste, 2017). I think you will find it helpful in reviewing the literature and analysing the text using literar and discourse analysis.
I am currently working on anthropological approaches to Spirit expereinventing in Luke-Acts, hence the terminology ‘Spirit possession’.
I‘d love to keep in touch.
Best wishes!
David
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It doesn't affect my teaching one way or the other. Since I believe in divine-human confluent authorship of Scripture, the authority of the text isn't altered by whether Paul or one of Paul's disciples wrote the Pastorals.
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What are the advantages of defining the divine anthropomorphically? What are the risks of defining the divine anthropomorphically?
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TEJ, yes I agree with your comment.
However, is the question as presented about only the last few thousand years in the 2 million years of evolution of religion? If so, the questioner needs to explain why only the short-chronology is being used. What's the justification for that? What about all the rest of the religions of the world? Not a few with no anthropomorphic god? Especially Nilo-Saharan Africa where the focus is on a personal and cosmic life-force rather than any personification. To get an even bigger picture of what the 'divine' might mean, see my papers on a Trans-species Definition of Religion and The Case for Chimpanzee Religion.
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Their discussion has informed the understanding of the "Image of God."
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desemythisation: Who cares?
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The 9th-century pandect BNF MS lat. 9380, produced under Theodulf's supervision, features rubricated chapter-numbers in the margins throughout. These marginal numbers are from the original scribe(s). But the prophetic books of the Old Testament seem to be the exception: no marginal chapter-numbers are evident there. Does anyone know why this manuscript would exclude the prophetic books from such marginal numbering?
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Thanks, Neil Ian Parker/ Yes it is beautiful. This link should give you access to the whole MS in order to answer your question directly from the source: http://gallica.bnf.fr/ark:/12148/btv1b8452776m
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The miniature is an illustration of a text written by Saint Hildegard of Bingen (1098 – 1179), entitled “Know the Ways of the Lord. Fourth vision, the stages of life. God is present when a child is born”. Interestingly, the golden romb is subdivided in three fields, two of them (the creation and annihilation operators?) being regularly packed with eyes, the symbols of testimony. Also remarkable: The romb is delimited from the sky, emphasizing that the ether is not to be confused with the levels of divinity.
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The packing of images with eyes in illustrations of St Hildegard's works may be quite common and rather than represent transmigration it may be more in keeping with 'fear of the lord', a figure identified as this appears on a facsimile of a probable twelfth century copy of Scivias used by Keith Sidwell as the cover illustration for his student text Reading Medieval Latin.  I have often wondered if the ultimate source for this imagery isn't Ovid's Metamorphoses with his description of Argos as Hera's watchdog.  The imagery of the Queen of Heaven having a many eyed watchdog might well fit in with twelfth century Catholic imagery. in this case the Lord sees all or is it that even if you were covered in eyes you could not fail to see proof of the Lord all around you.  Genesis 16.13 which uses the peacock in the same way as the Classical world used it's imagery strengthens this correlation.  This certainly suggests a relation with concepts of metamorphoses of physical bodies but I would suggest that the linkage is more with characterising the acceptance of God, whether via conversion or merely an awakening of the spirituality of one who is already Christian, as a sort of physical metamorphoses; especially given the physical suffering that accompanied St Hildegard's gifts.
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Does anybody know what language is this?
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It is Geʕez (Classical Ethiopian). It is nearly  50 years ago that I Iast read a text in this language, but I still can decipher some words in the text. It starts with (from left) ʔǝsma/because samʕǝka ⁓ samāʕka/he heared you ⁓ you heared, tamaḥar??, wǝʔētū/he, wa-mǝkrǝya/and my advice/will ... and so on. Seems to be a religious/philosophical text, maybe hymns. Hope this helps.
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And what was more important: the geographical place or the picture of Holy City - heaven on Earth? As we well know (see: H.E.J. Cowdrey, J. France) Pope Urban II's appeal for expedition to the East did not mention about Jerusalem. The City as a goal appeared several months later.
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As David Dunaetz has mentioned, the speech or Pope Urban II is a key to understand all the goals of the first Crusade. The fear of Seljuk (Seljuq) Turks advancing westward and invading christian lands, identified with the "Kingdom of God", was a key element. But the reconquest of the Holy land came later on, but become important as a goal.
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It is well known that there are three symbols of ancient Israel, i.e. the Ark of the Covenant, the original Menorah of Tabernacle, and the tablets of stone from Sinai where the Ten Commandments were supposedly written. All of these three symbols were lost since the Shlomo's First Temple was destructed by the Babylonian army. See http://www.torah.org/features/holydays/templemenorah.html. And perhaps the first Menorah was lost even since the Israeli crossed the Jordan river.
But considering a report by Bob Cornuke (History channel) that the Ark of the Covenant is probably located in the Church of Mary from Sion, in Ethiopia, then it seems quite possible to also find a clue on the present location of the ancient Menorah. Some years ago, I even read a fiction book suggesting that the original Menorah, made of a single block of gold, is located somewhere in an underground cave in an old city in Egypt.
I think the original Menorah is one of the most iconic symbols of archaeology, so if anyone knows possible locations of that piece of ancient Israel please kindly share here.
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According to tradition it was hidden away during the first temple period, together with the Ark and other artifacts. Though the Menorah on the Arch of Titus looks very like the Menorah of the Bible (Exodus), it is assumed to be a replica.
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I am reading Mark Smith's "The Priestly Vision of Genesis 1" (2010) and finding it very frustrating.  He is so convinced that P wrote the account in the 6th century he doesn't bother to tell us why he is so sure.  I am not much disposed to believe in P, J  JE, RJE etc etc considering the fiasco that is the story of Q.  What is the evidence?  Note that I say "composed",  not "written"?  One issue is the canonical text and its editor.  Another issue is the set of sources the editor used.  A third issue of great importance is how the editor used his sources,  and what creative freedom he allowed himself.
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Hi Roger.  It seems to me that you do not read the Creation accounts correctly when you insist that Moses intends you to understand that the "seven days" are each "24 hour days". 
It seems to me that Moses was perfectly well aware of metaphorical usage,  as when he spoke of "the eyes of the LORD" (Deut.11:12),  which King David echoed (Psalm 34:15):  does God have eyes?  Obviously not,  since he created them!  But God certainly sees, as Moses said memorably in Psalm 90:  "A thousand years in your sight are like a day just gone past".  In the Creation account the sun was created only on the fourth day:  but the sun is God's timekeeper with the specific office of "marking the seasons, days, and years" (Gen.1:14),  so how long was the first day?  It seems to me that Moses intends us to answer this question with the correct "God knows".  In what way, taking the text seriously,  can we be more specific?
On the date of Creation,  and your dismissive remarks about "deep time",  I would like to know how you gloss the cosmic microwave background?
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The apologetic character of OT theologies came to my mind when I read G.L. Bauer's Theologie des ATs, Leipzig in 1796 and realized the context of it. It definitely is a reaction to the Enlightenment, there was not a single OT theology in the Middle ages. What is the agenda of OT theologies of today?
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I would like to make a suggestion so long as there seems to be consideration of who has influenced who. The most important source for the Jewish, Christian, and Islamic understanding of the world, theology, and philosophy would have to be the Zoroastrians. The dramatic shift in Judaism with the return from exile in Babylon cannot be mistaken, nor should it be ignored.
It was the contact with the Persians over a 70-year period that changed many things in the way the Jewish scriptures would be written, understood, and applied. Most of the Jewish scriptures were not written down until after the return from exile. One should note that the reading of the first 5 books of the Jewish scriptures was presented to mostly ignorant non-literate and non-practicing members of the community in Israel. There is no doubt that the influence on Christianity and eventually Islam was tremendous. When the Jewish royalty returned from exile they brought with them the concepts of monotheism, life after death, the resurrection, heaven and hell, final judgment, the devil, and the cataclysmic end of the world. That is influence! It does seem to me that attempting to show a backwards influence of Christianity and Islam on the Jewish scriptures is somewhat misplaced. However, I do think that no religion grows in a vacuum, and all neighboring faith communities have influenced each other to some degree. There seems to be a migration of religious thought to help accommodate events that do not fit the paradigm of the religion.
Please know my thoughts are submitted in humility and no offense is intended.
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I have some resources but its still not enough for my research, hoping to get some help here
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The Bible tends to regard mental illness and epilepsy as being due to demonic possession. This is still believed in some societies, which results in patients being cruelly treated and not going to western-trained doctors, who at least have some treatments that work.
Hallucinations were regarded being communications from good or bad spirits. This explanation can be quite helpful (despite being untrue!) and is actually a more general and coherent explanation than those offered by modern neuroscience. If even one of these theories were correct (eg voices are inner speech), this theory would not apply to visual hallucinations, nor even to non-verbal auditory ones.
The best way to check the Bible is to look up words in a Bible Concordance.