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There are numerous Ribe space constructions but ultimately they produce the same general object, a quasi-Banach topology on the direct sum of the real line R with the Banach space l_1 of absolutely summable sequences. In all constructions R and l_1 are algebraic complements but R is closed and not complemented topologically. Every such space is non-locally-convex and Rademacher type 1. However, some embed into Lp for 0<p<1 while others do not. Some versions are minimal which is equivalent to having no basic sequence. Since every subspace of Lp contains a basic sequence, these versions cannot embed into Lp and the versions embedding into Lp must contain a basic sequence. However, every version seems to have the property that the uncomplemented 1-dim. subspace R is a subspace of every inf-dim. closed subspace. Doesn't this mean every version fails to have a basic sequence? Thus, every version is minimal and no version embeds into Lp for any 0<p<1.
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Actually this is very subtle. Depending on the choice of quasi-linear function used to define the quasi-norm, you can get a space that embeds into Lp for all 0<p<1. Such space necessarily contains a basic sequence. However, with a different quasi-linear function, the space obtained may be minimal. For locally-bounded F-spaces this is equivalent to the lack of any basic sequences.
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Let X be a Banach space with the following properties.
(1) X embeds into every inf. dim. closed subspace.
(2) If T is a vector topology then T is a strictly weaker Hausdorff topology on a subspace
of X if and only if it is the subspace topology of a strictly weaker Hausdorff topology on X.
Question 1: Does (1) follow from (2)?
Question 2: If X is Reflexive, must it be a separable Hilbert space?
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Condition (1): Any of its closed infinite-dimensional subspaces can contain X.
Condition (2): For a vector topology T, it is the case if and only if it can be extended on all of X that T, the only weaker Hausdorff topology on a subspace of X is a strictly weaker T.
Question 1: Is it the case that (1) is a consequence of (2)?
Answer: No in a word, and in more words, condition (1) Is not a consequence of condition (2).
Proof:
Always define a connecting plane or union of spaces, this is what induction in geometry is all about or what PT is about.
On the contrary, about direct embeddings/inclusions onto infinite dimensional closed subspaces.
A counterexample exists: let us take p dimension in space of sequences for p≠2 with ℓp⊕ℓ2 representation.
Condition (1) is false, hence, it is not a topology in exploration that can be embedded into an infinite dimension.
However, (2) satisfy as every weaker topology practically extend to any space.
Condition (2) extend to radial B-space and it is expected to be implemented because such space radially extend to any dimension.
Question 2: Let X be a reflexive space: does it at every point must be equipped with a separable Hilbert space as its centre?
Answer: Yes, a separable Hilbert space is equipped as centre, but on assumptions that X is reflexive and X satisfies both conditions (1) and (2).
Proof: The above proof clearly indicates that (i) there must be certain separation, meaning X is enough to consider super reflexive.
Indications also suggest that such properties violate containment, similar to (ii) and X must contain Radon-Nikodym property.
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Looking for an example of such a space or some argument why such a space doesn't exist.
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I'm looking for a single Banach space X that is type p for all 0<p<2 but not Hilbert. Each L_p has type p but is not type r for r>p. Also, I'm not sure the "Minkowski space" mentioned above qualifies as it does not appear to be complete but. Maybe I am misunderstanding.
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In the setting of Banach spaces, it is well know that if $M$ is a closed subspace of a Banach space $X$ and $F$ is a finite dimensional subspace of $X$, then $M+F$ is closed.
Does a Banach algebra version of the aforementioned result exist?
That is, if $M$ is a closed left ideal of a Banach algebra $\mathcal{A}$, $F$ is a minimal left ideal of $\mathcal{A}$, whether or not $M+F$ is closed too?
In particular, let $a \in \mathcal{A}$, $R(a):=\{x\in \mathcal{A}: ax=0\}$. If $a\mathcal{A}$ is closed and $R(a)$ is minimal, whether or not $a\mathcal{A}+R(a)$ is closed?
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Mr. @Dauphin Mwami Kamwanga Wa Kamwanga:
Mr. @Qingping Zeng is talking about the closedness of the sum of a closed left ideal and a minimal left ideal of a Banach algebra.
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book or article
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Which book you are looking for? If you search the name, google shows both the books.
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In a number of places in the collective works of Nigel Kalton, there is an unproven claim that l_p(X) is a tensor-product. I think I can show it is isomorphic to the projective tensor-product of l_p and X but the proof is not "immediate" to me. Does anyone know if such a proof is simple? Anyone have a reference for this? Here 1<=p<inf.
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Dear Geoff Diestel, you can benefit from this references :
1- Qingying Bu & Joe Diestel. OBSERVATIONS ABOUT THE PROJECTIVE TENSOR PRODUCT OF BANACH SPACES, I
2- Jan H. Fourie ∗,1 and Ilse M. Röntgen 2. Banach space sequences and projective tensor products
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I am looking forward to know the concept of Minkowski functional and its geometry to construct a semi-norm? Can anybody suggest me with some good soft copies?
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have a look at section 5.4.2 of the enclosed chapter
Best, Vladimir
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In general, x^n represents the n-th power of x in X (i.e., x multiplied by itself n times) is meaningless. Becaues there is no product in Banach space X.
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Thanks
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What is the polynomial functions on the open unit ball of a Banach space?
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Let X and Y be Banach spaces, n a positive integer.
A function P from X into Y is a n-homogeneous polynomial if there exists a
n-linear function L from X^n to Y such that P(x)=L(x,...,x).
A 0-homogeneous polynomial is a constant function.
A polynomial is the sum of a finite number of homogeneous polynomials.
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Suppose L_p is the usual Lebesgue space over (0,1) if you wish. Suppose T_j:L_1-->L_2 defines a sequence of continuous linear operators. Suppose l_1(L_1) is the Banach space of sequences from L_1 with norm (f_j_j-->||f_1||+||f_2||+... . Suppose L_2(l_inf) is the Banach space of sequences (f_j)_j from L_2 with the norm (f_j)_j-->||sup_j|f_j||. Finally, suppose T:l_1(L_1)-->L^2(l_inf) is a linear map defined by
(f_j)_j-->(T_j(f_j))_j.
It seems to me that the fact that T is well-defined, i.e. all outputs are in L_2(l_inf), AND each T_j is continuous implies T is continuous by the closed graph theorem. This is because the candidate limit (f_j)_j when arguing T has a closed graph has to satisfy f_j=T_j(x_j) where (x_j^n)_j converges to (x_j)_j in L_1(l_1).
My uncertainty stems from the following example. Fix T_1 and let T_j=log(j+9)T_1 for j>2. Since this sequence (T_j)_j is not uniformly L_1-->L_2 bounded, the corresponding operator T cannot be bounded(continuous). However, the slow growth of the operator norms is slow enough so that for (f_j)_j in L_1(l_1),
||sup_{j\le N}|T_j(f_j)|||<=||T_1||(sum_j (log(j+9))^2||f_j||^2)^{1/2}.
I'm just estimating by replacing maximal function on left with square function within the L_2 norm. In other words, since (f_j) in L^1(l_1), the right side of the inequality is finite and independent of N. Does this not imply T is well-defined from L_1(l_1) into L_2(l_inf) and thus contradicting the closed graph theorem argument above.
What am I missing? What dumb oversight am I not seeing?
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Thanks, don't know what I was thinking.
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Schauder Fixed Point conjecture deals with the existence of fixed points for certain types of operators on Banach spaces. It suggests that every non-expansive mapping of a non-empty convex, weakly compact subset of a Banach space into itself has a fixed point. The status of this conjecture may depend on the specific assumptions and settings.
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A search with keywords "weak fixed point property" (which is the official name of the property you are interested in) and with "weak normal structure" (which is a widely used sufficient condition for this property) may give you a lot of information on the subject.
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Invitation to Contribute to an Edited Book
A Complete Century of Banach Contraction Principle in Metric Fixed Point Theory
As editors, we are pleased to invite you and your colleagues to contribute your research work to an Edited Book entitled A Complete Century of Banach Contraction Principle in Metric Fixed Point Theory to be published by Nova Science Publishers. We hope that this book will be a milestone for many researchers of fixed point analysis and allied areas.
Please go through the details below for the deadlines.
Full chapter submission: July 19, 2023
Review results: Aug. 19, 2023
Revision Submission: Sept. 08, 2023
Final acceptance/rejection notification: Sept.23, 2023
Submission of final chapters to Springer: Sept.28, 2023
Email your papers to anitatmr@yahoo.com or jainmanish26128301@gmail.com or sanjaymudgal2004@yahoo.com (pdf and tex files) at the earliest possible. Submitted papers will be peer-reviewed by 3 reviewers. On acceptance, authors will be requested to submit the final paper as per the format of the book.
Kindly note that there is no fee or charge from authors at any stage of publication.
Looking forward to your valuable contribution.
Best Regards
Anita Tomar
Professor & Head
Department of Mathematics
Pt. L. M. S. Campus
Sridev Suman Uttarakhand University
Rishikesh-249201, India
Manish Jain
Head
Department of Mathematics,
Ahir College, Rewari-123401, India
&
Sanjay Kumar,
Professor
Department of Mathematics
DCRUST, Murthal, Sonepat, India
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Last call.If anyone interested .
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D={(x1,x2,x3,...,xn)/ xi belongs to [ai,bi], where each ai and bi are real numbers. i belongs to {1,2,3,...,n}}
C(D)={f:D----- R(function from D to R(Set of real numbers))/ f is a continuous function.}
||f||=max(x belongs to D){|f(x)|}
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Manan Anilkumar Maisuria $R^{d}$ is the d dimensional Euclidean space, you may consider n instead of d.
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One of the main problems of semigroup theory for linear operators is to decide whether a concrete operator is the generator of a semigroup and how this semigroup is represented.
One idea is to write complicated operators, as a sum of simple operators. For this reason, perturbation theory has become one of the most important topics in semigroup theory. My question is about the multi-perturbed semigroups or multiple perturbation of semigroups in a Banach space. I need a recurrent formula for a semigroup perturbed by multiple (several, i.e. more than two) bounded (in general unbounded) linear operators. I have searched for it, but only found a simple case, called the Dyson-Phillips series for a semigroup generated by A0+A1. How can we find the generalisation of this formula for a semigroup generated by A0+A1+...+An for a fixed natural n? Many thanks in advance. I am looking forward to your suggestions and recommendations on this topic.
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Hi professors. I hope you are doing well. This is a mathematical article that proves a new recurrence relation that is fundamental for mathematics. The article proves also that four infinite series are equivalent. Hence, this article opens new opportunities to demonstrate and develop new mathematical findings and observations. This is the link: https://www.researchgate.net/publication/364651911_A_useful_new_equation_of_four_infinite_series_and_sums_by_using_a_new_demonstrated_recurrence_relation
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I really want to know about the properties of kernel of a function in Banach space. As far i know that kernel of a function is collection of those elements for which its image is zero. But i want to know some more properties like how does its element will look like and in which case we say kernel of a function is closed etc. as such in Banach space. It would be a help if i can be recommended to some books or materials. Thank you
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Kernel of function means collections of informations or snippes about the function,knowledge ,place and descriptions or such job depending on Google,C.V, experience .......etc
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If possible, give an example of a continuous function defined on a convex subset of a Banach space $X$ satisfies Kannan contraction but does not satisfy Banach contraction.
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I am working on geometry of banach spces and applications in metric fixed point theory , especially  my interesting is renorming of Banach spaces, Is anyone interested in collaboration
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I am interested in the applications of Fixed Point Theory to differential and integrodifferential equations (fractional o generalized). Can be?
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If $X$ is a Hausdorff completely regular space and $E$ a Banach space, what are the extreme points of the unit ball of the Banach space $C_b(X, E)$ of all bounded continuous functions from $X$ into $E$, with the uniform norm ?
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To the best of my knoeledge, the problem remains open in the more concrete setting of linear operators between Banach spaces, endowed with the usual operator norm. It may sound strange, but even the finite-dimensional case remains open! I have personally studied the problem, along with some co-authors, exclusively in the Banach space context, and mostly in the finite-dimensional case. I think that it is a particularly hard problem, even in this far more restricted scenario.
Without a shadow of doubt, the problem deserves far more attention from the functional analysis community, and therefore, I must thank you for focussing on such a simple yet deep question.
Having said all these, I do know of some interesting results by Lindenstrauss and Perles, Lima, Sharir, T. S. S. R. K. Rao among others on this topic. It might be fruitful to look into their ideas and results (again, mostly in the Banach space context). We have also tried to contribute something to this intriguing topic. We (Paul, Mal, Sain) we have obtained a complete geometric characterization of extreme contractions between two-dimensional strictly convex and smooth Banach spaces. We (Paul, Ray, Roy, Bagchi, Sain) have also been able to obtain some interesting conclusions on extreme contractions between polyhedral Banach spaces. Recently, with Paul and Sohel, we have also obtained a complete characterization of extreme contractions between finite-dimensional polyhedral Banach spaces. Most of these papers are available on RG and please feel free to look at them, should you choose to!
Of course, much remains to be done on this fascinating question, and from multiple points of view, including analytic, grometric and combinatorial. In short, a potential exciting journey into the unknown!
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I am wondering if there is any source which disusses quasi-norms on a tensor product of quasi-Banach spaces. Without duality, this topic is likely much less interesting but I wonder if there are examples beyond trivial ones that can be constructed, e.g. p-convex quasi-tensor norms for products of locally-p-convex spaces analogous to the projective tensor norm for products of Banach spaces.
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see
Tensor products of normed and Banach quasi *-algebras
Adamo, Maria Stella, Fragoulopoulou, Maria
Journal:
Journal of Mathematical Analysis and Applications
Year:
2020
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Let E be a real Banach space and E' its dual. Let f:E->R and a belongs to E. We say that f is differentiable at the point a if it exists Df(a) belongs to E' so that
limx->a[f(x)-f(a)-Df(a)(x-a)]/(//x-a//)=0. So, we defined Df(a), the differential of f at the point a.
Let Ca1(E) be the vector space of all functions f:E->R differentiable at the point a. Let Da(E)={Df(a)/f belongs to Ca1(E)}.
Can we find an infinite dimensional real Banach space E, so that Da(E) be dense in E'? What happens in the case of complex Banach spaces?
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For every $f \in X^*$ and every $a \in X$ consider the following $F: X \to R$: $F(x) = f(x) + (f(x-a))^2$. The derivative of $F$ at point $a$ is equal to $f$.
This answers your question "Every element of continuous dual is a "differential of a nonlinear function"? It's generally true? Why?".
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Of course every Banach space has type 1 and it is known that if 0<p<1 then every quasi-Banach space has type p if and only if it is locally-p-convex. Below is a question and some comments which I think are worthy of discussion. I am not certain of some comments so any corrections or insights would be appreciated. If this discussion gets off the ground, I can provide some extra information and references.
Question: Must a quasi-Banach space of type 1 equal its Mackey topology completion?
1. If there is a non-locally convex space of type 1 with a separating dual then the answer to the above question is negative. However, I don't know of such a space.
2. The Ribe space R is a non-locally convex space whose dual vanishes on a one-dimensional subspace L such that the quotient R/L is the Banach space of absolutely summable scalar sequences. Thus, the completion of R with respect to its Mackey topology is a pseudo-normed space with a 1-dimensional null subspace. Thus, this is a complete pseudo-normed space and is known to have type 1.
3. Consider the Lorentz spaces L1,q for q in [1,inf].
  • L1,1 is the Banach space L1 and is therefore type 1 and of course complete in its Mackey topology.
  • L1,inf is the non-locally-convex space weak-L1. This space has a complicated, non-trivial dual. I am not sure how to determine if this space is a complete pseudo-normed space in its Mackey topology but it is known that this space does NOT have type 1 but is locally-p-covex for every 0<p<1.
  • If 1<q<inf, L1,q has a trivial dual space. Thus, it is complete in its Mackey topology as this is the trivial space {0}. This space is known to have type 1.
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As I remember, if we have a topological vector space (X,T) - T the linear topology on X, then a linear topology U on X is Mackey topology iff all linear and continuous functionals on X relatively to T are also continuous relatively to U. In other words, a Mackey topology is the maximal topology on X, preserving the continuous dual of (X,T). And, if (X,T) is locally convex( T is generated by the family of Minkowski functionals on X), then T is right Mackey topology on X.
Please correct me, if I'm wrong!
Now let's consider the Lorentz space L1,q. If 1/q+1/r=1 and L1,r may be identified with the dual of L1,q, I think this fact would help to obtain an answer to your question. But I don't know anything about duals of Lorentz spaces and my assertion is probably not true.
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I am working on a perturbation h of the identity I on a Banach space X, i.e. h(x) = x – f(x), with f(0)=0.
f is regular enough on X, but I do not know if the regularity holds on a subspace Y of X.
More precisely:
f is C^1_{Lip} and the operator (I – f_x(0))^{-1} exists and it is bounded in L(X), so that the classic conditions for the existence of a local inverse in a neighborhood of x=0 are satisfied. Let this inverse function be h^{-1}: B(0,R_1) \to B(0,R).
Now, the question.
Let Y be a Banach subspace of X, embedded continuously with norm \| \cdot \|_Y in X.
f is Lipschitz in the Y-norm, moreover we have h(Y) \subseteq Y
and if y \in B(0,R_1) \cap Y then h^{-1}(y) \in Y.
We have also that (I – f_x(0))^{-1}|_Y \in L(Y).
Are these conditions sufficient for the continuity of h^{-1}(y)|_Y , (or at least for the boundedness) without assuming that h|_Y in C^1 ?
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Thank you very much.
I have found an answer in the book "Applied Nonlinear Analysis" by Ekeland and Aubin, and also in the Notes by Ralph Howard: "The Inverse Function Theorem for Lipschitz Maps" (inverse.pdf)
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I have a cost function of real variable x to be minimized as follow:
J(x) = || A(x) - b ||2 + || x ||2
the 1st norm is in complex Banach space and the 2nd norm is in real admissible Hilbert space.
The problem is that when using e.g. gradient descent method, the 1st sentence gradient is a complex number, which will give wrong result due to the initial assumption that x is real.
Any help is appreciated
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Norms kill imaginary parts.
So where is your problem?
Regards
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I'm currently working on fixed point theorems on uniformly convex spaces and I will love if anyone can point my attention to spaces that are uniformly convex apart from the ones I have listed above.
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I suggest you the 2-uniformly convex hyperbolic spaces.
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How to properly characterize a ten-dimensional space. How does it fit with the modern understanding of the environment.
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Six-dimensional space is any space that has six dimensions, six degrees of freedom, and that needs six pieces of data, or coordinates, to specify a location in this space. There are an infinite number of these, but those of most interest are simpler ones that model some aspect of the environment. Of particular interest is six-dimensional Euclidean space, in which 6-polytopes and the 5-sphere are constructed. Six-dimensional elliptical space and hyperbolic spaces are also studied, with constant positive and negative curvature.
Formally, six-dimensional Euclidean space, ℝ6, is generated by considering all real 6-tuples as 6-vectors in this space. As such it has the properties of all Euclidean spaces, so it is linear, has a metric and a full set of vector operations. In particular the dot product between two 6-vectors is readily defined and can be used to calculate the metric. 6 × 6 matrices can be used to describe transformations such as rotations that keep the origin fixed.
More generally, any space that can be described locally with six coordinates, not necessarily Euclidean ones, is six-dimensional. One example is the surface of the 6-sphere, S6. This is the set of all points in seven-dimensional space (Euclidean) ℝ7 that are a fixed distance from the origin. This constraint reduces the number of coordinates needed to describe a point on the 6-sphere by one, so it has six dimensions. Such non-Euclidean spaces are far more common than Euclidean spaces, and in six dimensions they have far more applications.
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A Banach space has property BD if every limited subset of it is relatively weakly compact.
A subset $A$ of $X$ is called a Grothendieck set if every operator $T:X\to c_0$ maps $A$ onto a relatively weakly compact set.
A Banach space $X$ has the weak Gelfand-Phillips  (wGP) property if every Grothendieck set in $X$ is relatively weakly compact.
Every limited set is a Grothendieck set. If X has the wGP property , then X has the BD property.
It is known that if X does not contain $\ell_1$, then X has property BD. Moreover, it has property wGP.
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Every Banach lattice with order continuous norm has the BD property, but it does not have the weak GP propetry, in general.
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Given a Banach space X and the fact that all norms are equivalent, does it follow that dimension of X is finite? The converse statement is proved in many books however I didn't find this statement neither proved or disproved anywhere. Does there exist any relevant book where this is described? Thank you for any links or answers.
Filip Soudský
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On every infinite-dimensional linear space (real or complex) there exist non-equivalent norms. Usually this statement is given as an exercise, like for example Exercise 4 in Section 10.2.1 of my book ``A Course in Functional Analysis and Measure Theory'' https://www.springer.com/us/book/9783319920030#aboutBook
Let me give here a possible solution. Let $X$ be an infinite-dimensional linear space. Select a Hamel basis $e_t, t \in T$ for $X$ (see the definition and the existence theorem in sections 5.1.1 and 5.1.3 of the same book). Every element $x \in X$ is uniquely representable as a linear combination of $e_t, t \in T$, that is in the form
$$
\sum_{t \in T} a_t(x) e_t,
$$
where all $a_t(x)$ are scalars and only finite number of $a_t(x)$ are different from zero.
Define two norms: $||x|| = \sum_{t \in T} |a_t(x)|$ and
$|||x||| = \max_{t \in T} |a_t(x)|$. Both norms are correctly defined, because in the corresponding sum and max only finitely many nonzero coordinates are involved,
but these two norms are not equivalent.
Best, Vladimir Kadets
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My question is about quotient function spaces.
More precisely, let X be a Banach spaces with norm ||.|| and K be a closed subspace of X. It is known (see e.g. Taylor-Lay, Introduction to Functional Analysis, Theorem 5.1) that the quotient space X/K is still a Banach space with |||[u]|||=inf ||x||, with x in [u].
If we further assume that X is uniformly convex, it is then easy to show the existence of a unique u0 in every equivalence class [u] such that |||[u]|||=||u0||.
Moreover, the map, say G: X/K -->X defined by G[u]=u0 is continuous. Again the continuity of G is a consequence of the reflexivity of X, which derives from its uniform convexity.
Now comes my question. Has G some additional regularity property such as lipschitizanity?
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In general, the answer is negative by the following indirect argument. Assume X is separable and uniformly convex, and let G: X/K -->X be the map in question. If this map is Lipschitz, then it is a Lipschitz embedding, because the inverse map G^{-1} : G(X) \to X/K is also Lipschitz (in fact, it is a contraction) . This means, that X/K is Lipschitz embeddable into X. According to Theorem 3.5 of the paper
Heinrich, Stefan; Mankiewicz, P. Applications of ultrapowers to the uniform and Lipschitz classification of Banach spaces. Stud. Math. 73, 225-251 (1982),
this implies that X/K is isomorphic to a subspace of X. But the general result "each quotient space of a uniformly convex separable Banach space X is isomorphic to a subspace of X" is not correct. Say, L_5[0,1] has a quotient space isomorphic to l_4, but does not have subspaces isomorphic l_4.
This latter fact can be extracted from two old papers:
Kadets, M. I. Linear dimension of the spaces \(L_{p}\) and \(l_{q}\).
Usp. Mat. Nauk 13, No. 6(84), 95-98 (1958)
Kadets, M. I.; Pełczyński, Aleksander
Bases, lacunary sequences and complemented subspaces in the spaces \(L_ p\).
Stud. Math. 21, 161-176 (1962).
almost surely, the results are contained in some books like Lindenstrauss-Tzafriri Classical Banach spaces I and II.
All the best, Vladimir
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A reasonable method of defining an integral that includes the HK integral is to say a Schwartz distribution $f$ is integrable if it is the distributional derivative of a continuous function $F$. Then the integral $(D)\int^b_a f=F(b)-F(a)$. The resulting space of integrable distributions is a Banach space that includes the space of HK integrable functions and is isometrically isomorphic (with Alexiewicz norm) to the continuous functions vanishing at $a$ (with uniform norm).
If $F=C$ is the Cantor(the Devil's staircase) function and $\langle C'\rangle$ (we use notation $\langle C'\rangle$ to avoid confusion and in some situation $C'$) is the distributional derivative of $C$, then
$(D)\int^0_1 \langle C'\rangle=C(1)-C(0)=1-0=1$. Note that $\langle C'\rangle$ is a measure.
If here $C'$ denotes derivative in classical sense then $C'=0$ a.e. and $(HK)\int^0_1 C'=0$.
Suppose $F$ is continuous on $[a,b]$. Also suppose $f(t)=F'(t)$ exists except on a countable set $Q=(c_k)$; define $f$ arbitrarily on $Q$. Then
Then $\int_a^t f(x) dx $ exists and equals $F(t)-F(a)$.
See for example
"An Open Letter to Authors of Calculus Books". Retrieved 27 February 2014.
NEWTON–LEIBNIZ FORMULA AND HENSTOCK–KURZWEIL INTEGRAL ZVONIMIR \v SIKI\'C, ZAGREB
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Dear Miodrag,
Fist here is definition of the Henstock–Kurzweil integral :
The set of KH-integrable functions forms an ordered vector space and the integral is a positive linear form on this space. On a segment, any Riemann-integrable function is KH-integrable (and of the same integral).
For relation between the gauge integral and the Lebesgue and Riemann integrals, i suggest you to see links and attached file on topic.
Best regards
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We know that mathematicians study different mathematical spaces such as Hilbert space, Banach space, Sobolev space, etc...
but as engineers, is it necessary for us to understand the definition of these spaces?
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Yes, we do have to know about the spaces, at least during our university studies, to enables us to expand our mind into abstact level, that will be very usefull for design activities
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We know that if X is a uniformly rotund space then for every closed subspace M of X, X/M is uniformly convex. Does the similar assertion true for a locally uniformly rotund space ? If not is there any known sufficient conditio for that?
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The answer is negative. Take as $X$ the space $\ell_1$ in the LUR renorming $\|x\| = \sqrt{\|x\|_1^2 + \|x\|_2^2}$ where $ \|x\|_p$ denotes the canonical $\ell_p$ norm. This $X$ possesses quotient spaces that are not strictly convex. With some additional effort one can demonstrate that $X$ has a quotient isometric to $\ell_1$ in canonical norm, which implies that $X$ has as its quotients all separable Banach spaces.
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Let X be a normed linear space and let Y be a subspace of X. How are X* and Y* related. Is always Y* contained in X* or the reverse inclusion is also possible?
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If Y is dense in X, then any linear continuous form on Y has a unique linear continuous extension to the whole space X. Hence, in this case, Y* is contained in X*. On the other hand, the restriction to Y of any linear continuous form on X is linear and continuous on Y, for any vector subspace Y of X, even in the case when Y is not dense in X. Thus, it seems that always X* is contained in Y*.
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Let X be a Banach space and let T be a bounded linear operator on X. We know that if X is reflexive and T is compact then there exists x in the unit sphere of X such that T attains its norm at x. Can we impose any condition on X or on T such that x is the unique such point?
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In general, it is a difficult problem to identify the points at which an operator attains norm, if it attains norm at all! Having said that, there are certain estimations available in l_p^2 spaces over the real field, where p \neq 1, 2, \infty. It says that if an operator attains norm at more than 2(8p-5) number of points, then it must be a scalar multiple of an isometry.
For p=2, norm attaining point is unique (upto multiplication by \pm 1) if and only if the concerned operator is a smooth point in the operator space. In general, for a SMOOTH operator between Banach spaces, norm attaining point is unique (upto multiplication by \pm 1) if the operator attains norm.
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Infinity Tuple is an infinity component of commutative bounded linear operators acting on common Ordered Hilbert space H(or Ordered Banach space), as T=(T1,T2,...,Tn,...). By Orbit(T,x) as x is in H we mean that union of orbit of all n-tuples generated by T1,T2,....
Is there any problem if we use T(x) for Supn{T1T2...Tn(x):n in N}
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Attached photos of my definition of hypercyclic infinity tuples.
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The Schwartz space of rapidly decreasing functions consists of all infinitely differentiable complex-valued functions on R that vanish at infinity, along with their derivatives, more rapidly than any polynomial. As it is known, an orthonormal basis in the Schwartz space is the so-called Hermite basis, which contains the functions Hn(x)exp(-x2/2), with n=0,1,… and Hn(x) is the n-degree Hermite polynomial. It is also known that the Schwartz space with the L2 norm is a dense subspace of the Banach space L2(R).
Apart from the Hermite basis, are there other bases of the Schwartz space that can be expressed in closed form?
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As you point out the Hermite functions are the energy eigenfunctions for the harmonic oscillator. One aspect here is that the Schrodinger equation for the harmonic oscillator is invariant under the Fourier transform (the second derivatives and x^2 transform into each other).
One way to think about these functions is that they are the result of doing the Graham -Schmidt orthonormalization process starting with the functions 1,x,x^2,x^3, ... The polynomials are dense in the functions that are square integrable with respect to e^{-x^2}dx and so you get an o.n. basis from this process.
If you take *any* sequence of functions whose linear combinations are dense, you can do this same process to get a different o.n. basis. You can even do the polynomials in a different order. Depending on the permutation of the integers used, you may get *very* different results.
For example, do x^0, x^1x^,3, x^2, x^4, x^6, x^5, x^7,x^9, x^11,..
where you take one even exponent, two odd, three even, four odd, etc.
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The open mapping theorem is usually proved in most texts using Baires Category theorem which depends upon the axiom of choice.
But if one studies differential calculus in Banach spaces say as in Dieuodenne Foundations of Modern Analysis the theorem is the first part of Inverse mapping theorem( as proved in Walter Rudin's classic Principles of Mathematical Analysis and the proof carries over to Banach space setting ) as a contiuous linear mapis differentiable This proof does not depend upon Baires Category Theorem..
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There is a long story of dependence of the Baire's theorem on AC (Axiom of choice). In fact, it comes from the work of P. Bernays in 1942. The Baire's theorem depends on a weaker form of AC, called Axiom of dependent choice (AD).
I am recommending a short Wikipedia article: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Axiom_of_dependent_choice
To study these issues more in-depth, start with the literature at the end of this article. About 99% of the mathematicians who use the Baire's theorem, Banach open mapping theorem, or Banach-Steinhaus theorem, really do not care whether the above depend on AC or DC. Nevertheless, connections with the foundations of mathematics are very important here.
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Are there any examples of an everywhere defined unbounded operator acting on a banach spaces which is surjective but not necessarely injective ?
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In Mirotin's answer one of the spaces is not complete, but the construction can be easily modified to obtain an operator that acts in one the same Banach space $X$.
Namely, in the infinite-dimensional Banach space $X$ choose a linearly independent sequence of vectors $\{{e_n}\}_{n = 1}^\infty$, and choose a set $A \subset X$, such that $A\cup \{{e_n}\}_{n = 1}^\infty$ is a Hamel basis of $X$. Now define the operator $ T\colon X \to X $ by the following rule: for $x\in A $ put $ Tx = x$, put $Te_1 = 0$ and for the vectors $\{{e_n}\}_{n = 2}^\infty$ put $ Te_n = n e_{n-1}$, and then extend $T$ to the whole space $X$ by linearity.
This $T$ is surjective, because each because each element of the Hamel basis $A\cup \{{e_n}\}_{n = 1}^\infty$ belongs to $T(X)$; $T$ is not injective, because $Te_1 = 0$, and is unbounded because $ Te_n = n e_{n-1}$ for $n = 2, 3, ...$.
The definition of Hamel basis you can find in section 5.1.3 of my book https://link.springer.com/book/10.1007%2F978-3-319-92004-7
Many facts and examples related to your question you can find in Chapter 10 of the same book.
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In the theory of the stability of the differential operators, one could prove the stability results based on spectra of an operator, (all eigenvalues must be negative for example).
one problem with the above method is that not all linear operators are self-adjoint (for examples operators in convection diffusion form) and their corresponding eigenvalue problem can not be solved analytically, hence spectra of the operator can not be calculated analytically. On the other hand there is a definition related to spectra, which is called pseudo-spectra, that somehow evaluates the approximated spectrum , even for non self-adjoint operators.
I want to know is it possible to establish stability results for a differential operator based on pseudo-spectra?
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The question you ask is a very broad one. Since differential operators are unbounded - the definition of the on which one defines the operator is important. When one goes to infinite dimensions, there might not even be a point spectrum (eigenvalues) - the spectrum may be only the continuous spectrum and residual spectrum. If the operator has a self joint extension or a normal extension then the problem becomes more tractable but for non-normal operators the problem is quite complex.
At one time a class of operators "spectral operators" were defined, see Dunford and Schwartz, "Linear Operators", vol III, to address the issues on non-normal operators. Proving a non-normal operator - even an ordinary differential operator - was not a trivial task. The goal of this effort was to expand the concept of Jordan Canonical form to first bounded linear operators on a Hilbert/Banach space and then to unbounded linear operators, e.g., differential operators. For compact operators or operators with compact resolvents - that has been solved. For bounded normal and unitary operators, that has been solved (spectral theorem). For unbounded operators with a compact resolvent, that has been pretty much solved (by using the spectral theorem the spectral theorem). For unbounded self adjoint operators, there is also a spectral theorem. However, for non-normal bounded operators and non-self adjoint unbounded operators - there is no general result on a canonical form.
In these problems stability questions be quite problem specific.
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I begin anew research on this topic
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Dear Abeer,
I happen to share the same field of interest as yours. You may have a look at my ResearchGate publications, and more importantly, the references therein, to find some recent publications on orthogonality in Banach spaces.
I work mostly with Birkhoff-James orthogonality only, but there are excellent works on other kind of orthogonality types in Banach spaces, e.g., isosceles orthogonality.
It might also be a good idea to begin with the three famous papers by R. C. James on Birkhoff-James orthogonality in normed linear spaces. You will find all these references, and more, in our work, and recent works by several other mathematicians.
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In finite dimensionnal spaces, the sum is evidentely closed. If one of the subspaces is of finite dimension, the result is a simple translation of closed subspace. The situation in infinite dimension spaces is difficult and I do not find a good example or a proof of that the sum is always closed.
I received and find a lot of examples but they do not take care to completeness of the ambiant space X. For example, at the attachement, The space X=IR[X] is not a banach one
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First, recall that if $X$ is a normed space, $X_1$ and $X_2$ be linear subspaces of $X$, and $X = X_1 \oplus X_2$, then the natural projector $P$ onto $X_1$ parallel to $X_2$ is defined as follows:
given $x\in X$, decompose it as $x = x_1 + x_2$, where $x_1 \in X_1$, $x_2 \in X_2$ (by assumption, this decomposition exists and is unique), and then put $P(x) = x_1$.
This linear projector $P$ is continuous if and only if there is a constant $C > 0$ such that for every $x_1 \in X_1$, $x_2 \in X_2$ the inequality $\|x_1\| \le C \|x_1 + x_2\|$ holds true.
The most natural way of constructing examples of closed subspaces with non-closed sum is based on the following theorem (which is a standard application of the closed graph theorem):
Let $X$ be a Banach space, $X_1$ and $X_2$ be closed subspaces of $X$, and $X = X_1 \oplus X_2$. Then the natural projector $P$ onto $X_1$ parallel to $X_2$ is a continuous operator.
Consequently, if in a Banach space $E$ you construct two closed subspaces $X_1$ and $X_2$ with zero intersection, denote $X = X_1 \oplus X_2$ and find that the projector $P$ onto $X_1$ parallel to $X_2$ is discontinuous, then $X$ must be non-closed (otherwise $X$ would be a Banach space and by the previous theorem $P$ should be continuous).
There are many such examples of $X_1$ and $X_2$. For example, if in the Hilbert space $\ell_2$ you take an orthonormal basis $e_n$, $n = 1, 2, ...$, and take as $X_1$ the closed linear hull of all $e_{2k}$, $k = 1, 2, ..$ and as $X_2$ the closed linear hull of vectors $e_{2k} + 2^{- k} e_{2k-1}$, $k = 1, 2, ..$, then these $X_1$ and $X_2$ will be the desired example.
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a comparatively simpler proof of change of variables in Lebesgue multiple integral in euclidean spaces is in serge lang analysis Ii and only one part is valid for Banach spaces?
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A comprehensive study on this topic is Dunford Schwartz, Part I, p. 489-511, see also L. Meziani, Acta Math. Univ. Comenianae 74 (2005), 59-70, available at
[access May 2018]
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Let X be a Banach space which has no infinite reflexive subspaces.
Does this assumption implies that the space X itself is not reflexive?
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Something is missing in the statement of the question. In the way how it is formulated now
"Let X be a Banach space which has no infinite(-dimensional) reflexive subspaces. Does this assumption imply that the space X itself is not reflexive?"
the answer is trivial: If X is finite-dimensional, then it has no infinite-dimensional reflexive subspaces, but X itself is reflexive.
If one reformulates the question adding that X itself is infinite-dimensional, then X also is a subspace of X, so by the assumption of the question, X cannot be reflexive.
Finally, if one asks the question "Let X be an infinite-dimensional Banach space which has no PROPER infinite-dimensional reflexive subspaces. Does this assumption imply that the space X itself is not reflexive",
then the answer really needs the theorem that every closed subspace of a reflexive Banach space is reflexive, which can be found in most functional analysis textbooks, for example in those which were recommended in the answer by Oleg Reinov.
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Let $X$ be a complex Banach space and $T$ be a bounded operator acting on $X$. Let $\sigma(T)$ and $\sigma_{ap}(T)$ denote the spectrum and approximate point spectrum of $T$, respectively. Let $\lambda \in \sigma(T)$. It is classical that, with the aid of the spectral projection, $\lambda$ is isolated in $\sigma(T)$ if and only if $T - \lambda$ can be decomposed as a direct sum of a quasinilpotent operator and a invertible one. Now my nature question is as follows: Let $\lambda \in \sigma_{ap}(T)$. Is it true that $\lambda$ is isolated in $\sigma_{ap}(T)$ if and only if $T - \lambda$ can be decomposed as a direct sum of a quasinilpotent operator and a bounded belowness one? Here we say that an operator is bounded below if it is injective and its range is closed. It is also nature to find the answer for other spectra (eg. left spectrum, surjective spectrum, right spectrum, essential spectrum,...). Thank you!
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In the peridynamic state based model, the Frechet derivative is used, I would like to know why is this derivative is used, instead of the Gateaux or the ordinary derivative?
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Frechet derivative is a generalization of the ordinary derivative and the first Frechet derivative is Linear operator. When you study differential calculus in Banach spaces you need to study Frechet and Gateaux derivatives. The different between Frechet and Gateaux derivatives is that the Frechet derivative is generalization of partial derivative for multivariable functions and Gateaux derivative is generalization of directional derivative. I think that the Frechet derivative is used in the peridynamic state based model to linearized the model.
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Consider an infinite dimensional Banach space X equipped with its weak topology \sigma(X,X^*). It is not a metrizable space, but if it is a paracompact space? Related properties for the weak topology on some subsets of X?
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Dear Mieczyslaw,
It is well known that the weak topology is Hausdorff. Also this topology is regular. Moreover, if $\mathcal{U}=\{U_s:s\in I\}$ is an open covering of a reflexive Banach space $X$, then for every $n\in N$,
$B[0,n]=\{x\in X:\|x\|\leq n\}\subseteq \cup U_s$.
By compactness of $B[0,n]$ in the weak topology, it follows that for every $n\in N$, there exist $\alpha^n_1,\dots,\alpha^n_{s_n}\in I$ such that
$B[0,n]\subseteq\cup\{ U_{\alpha^n_i}:i=1,\dots,s_n\}$.
Thus $\underset{n\in\mathbb{N}}{\cup}\{U_{\alpha^n_i}:1=1,\dots,s_n\}$ is a countable subcovering of $\mathcal{U}$.
Therefore $X$ is Lindelöf.
Finally, since every regular Lindelöf space is paracompact, it follows that if $X$ is a reflexive Banach space then $X$ with the weak topololy is paracompact.
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A proof of the aforementioned result can also be found in the text of Kalton, Peck, and Roberts(p.75). While working on something else, I think I have stumbled on a general principle that would prove the same conclusion without the assumption of separability.
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This is a very interesting question.
Followers of this thread may find the following papers interesting:
A Birkhoff type transitivity theorem for non-separable completely metrizable spaces with applications to Linear Dynamics
On (mk)-hypercyclicity criterion
Hypercyclic and mixing operator semigroups
For non-separable F spaces, see
Subseries convergence in topological groups and vector spaces
On the Orlicz-Pettis property in nonlocally convex $F$-spaces
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Can you list some examples of ordered Banach spaces?
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Here is a description of a book that appears to give you what you need.
/Michael
Ordered Banach Spaces
Even though there are many excellent monographs on Banach spaces, the topic of ordered Banach spaces is not very often included. And even if it is, the authors usually deal only with the more particular case of Banach lattices. The aim of this book is to fill (at least partially) this gap and to provide an up-to-date study of the structure of convex cones contained in Banach spaces and some of the related operators. The book originates from three different sources. The first is conical measures (introduced by G. Choquet and used for developing integral representation theory). The second is the well-established theory of Banach lattices and the third is the Krivine theorem on finite representability of finite dimensional ℓp spaces in Banach lattices. By blending them together, the author obtains an original and instructive contribution to classical functional analysis.
The book starts by presenting various forms of the Hahn-Banach theorem and proving theorems of M. G. Krein, V. L. Klee and T. Ando on cones in Banach spaces. The second chapter is devoted to a presentation of B. Maurey’s theorem on factorization of operators through Lp spaces. An important ingredient here and later on is the Rosenthal lemma. To study convex cones, chapter 3 introduces conical measures and their basic properties. The next part contains the first main results of the book on p-summing operators and their factorization. The author then proceeds with an investigation of representability of finite ℓp spaces in normal cones of Banach spaces. He also shows a relationship between type and cotype of a Banach space with the index introduced in the previous chapter. The author then studies positive operators starting in C(K) spaces and he continues the investigation of p-summing operators on convex cones. The Pietsch inequality and a composition theorem are proved. The last chapter describes the situation of tensor products and positive maps. Five appendices and several open problems complete the book making the presentation rather self-contained.
Author: R. Becker
Publisher: Hermann
Published:
2008
ISBN:
978-27056-6721-4
Price:
EUR 43
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Suppose we consider Banach sp valued mappings and integration in several variables.
1) in general one can also define refinement integral . i m also aware that it does not make difference to hk integral even for banach space valued maps.
2) but Riemann integral of two variables is defined on,ly using NEt partttions. for real functions abolute integrability will coincide with lebesgue and we have only one unique daniell extenmsion.
but Suppose i start with normed space of riemann integrable mappings ( not functions) then riemann integral is not absolute integral for mappings and we can extend by a method which is variant of daniell process described by professor M.Leinert.
we can also extend integral on step maps .
we can also extend hk integral for maps
1) is the daniell extension of riemann integral different from hk integral in the sense there are are mappings which are daniellriemann integrable but not hk?
2) it is well known that if we restrict our attention to only net parttions then given agauge delta ( a rectangle containing a point) one need not have a delta fine net partition.
3) however if we consider gauges as product of gauges on x and y axis then it will exist . why not use such gauges
4) the only obstacle seems to be that if a set is of measure zero( def : integral of characteristic function is zero is a Null set ( def : integral of any positive function is zero on that set.) The result may not hold good.
5) but then we use only null sets. and we have each negilgible set ( def one which can be covered by countable union of rectangles so that sum total volume is arbitrarily small ) is a null set..
i shall ve very happy if discussion and guidance on these issues is available. i may post on research gate as well.
6) so can we use such gauges ?
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it seems that elegant yet simple revolutionary paper by M.A Robdera "unified approach to vector integration "  internet journal of operator thgeory functional analysis and applications vol 5, number 2, 2013 pp119-139 pushpa publications , allahabad india contains key to the answers to my questionset
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Of course there are uncomplimented subspaces of Banach spaces but the sequence space little-Lp is "projective" for the category of p-Banach spaces. Thus, if X is a p-Banach space with closed subspace N and T is an operator from little-Lp to X/N there is a lifting S(not necessarily unique) from little-Lp to X.
Moreover, since X/N is p-normable there is an index set I such that there is a surjection from little-Lp(I) to X/N. Thus, this surjection has a lifting to X. Does this imply N is complimented or is the uniqueness of the lifting required?
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Dear Geoff,
In Lp[0,1] with p < 1 there is no continuous non-zero linear functional, consequently there is no complemented 1-dimensional subspace.
Best regards, Vladimir
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I don't know how to character the predual of Morrey space with variable exponent
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One of the predual space of Morrey space with variable exponents is the block space with variable exponent, see 
Cheung K.,and Ho, K.-P. Boundedness of Hardy-Littlewood maximal operator on block spaces with variable exponent, Czechoslovak Math. J. 64(139), 155-171 (2014).
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Some problems of differential equations could be reduced to fixed points of mappings between Banach spaces of different dimensions, in which case the classical Leray-Schauder degree does not apply. So, I am wondering whether there exists topological degree of this type? Could someone tell me some references on this topic?
Best wishes,
Liangping Qi
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In the late 1960's Browder and Petryshyn - constructed a degree theory for a class of mappings between two different Banach spaces.
F. E, Browder and W. V. Petryshyn, Approximation methods and the generalized topological degree  for nonlinear mappings in Banach spaces, J. Funct. Anal. 3 (1969)
Also in the late 1960's Elworthy and Tromba developed a degree theory for some types of nonlinear proper Fredholm operators (C^1 mapping whose differential at each point is linear Fredholm operator) of index zero between Banach manifolds.
K. D, Elworthy and A. J. Tromba, Differential structures and Fredholm maps on Banach manifolds, Global Analysis, vol 14-16, Proc. Sympos. Pure Math, American Math Soc., 1970.
A pretty good overview of the history of index theory can be found in 
J. Mawhin, Lerary-Schauder Degree: A half century of extensions and applications, Topological Methods in Norlin. Anal, (14), 1999.
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The functional is defined from a convex closed bounded subspace A of a banach space E to the real space R
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No; consider the norm (or its square) on an infinite dimensional Hilbert space.
Dirk.
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I wonder if someone have a short proof for the following fact X* +Y*=(X∩Y)*. where X*+Y*= {r = x*+y*;  x*∈X* ,y*∈Y*}. It is clear that any functional r = x*+y* belongs to (X∩Y)*. How to prove that there are no more liner bounded functionals on X∩Y ?
Let Z be a topological vector space. X and Y be Banach spaces embedded  to Z.
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Dear Khalid,
I believe that the correct statement of the question comes from terminology of interpolation theory. See, for example
A Banach space X is said to be continuously embedded in a Hausdorff topological vector space Z when X is a linear subspace of Z such that the inclusion map from X into Z is continuous. A compatible couple (X, Y) of Banach spaces consists of two Banach spaces X and Y that are continuously embedded in the same Hausdorff topological vector space Z. The embedding in a linear space Z allows to consider the space X∩Y equipped with the norm ||z|| = max{||z||_X,||z||_Y}. In this terminology the Khalid's question means: is it true that every continuous linear functional on  X∩Y is of the form x*+y*, where  x* is a restriction to  X∩Y of an element of X*, and y* is a restriction to X∩Y of an element of Y*.
Khalid, did you mean this question?
All the best, Vladimir
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I am wondering whether the relative interior of a linear subspace which is not closed is empty or not ? I work in a general Banach space.
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Hellow everybody,
What is meant by relative interior ? If you mean the interior with respect to its own topology, it is of course non empty since any topological space is open in itself. If you mean the interior of a subset  A of a subspace F of a Banach space E with respect to the relative topology on F, then Thomas Korimort has given the answer.
Remember that : in any topological vector space, the only subspace which has a non empty interior is E itself, because the 0-neighbourhoods are absorbant..
Also a subset of a topological space can fail to be neither open nor closed.
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In the paper  V. MÜLLER,  A. PEPERKO,  Generalized spectral radius and its max algebra version, LAA, 2013, 1006-1016 we (also) gave quite a simple proof of the Berger- Wang formula on the equality of the joint and the generalized spectral radius of a bounded set of non-negative (entrywise) n times n matrices, by first proving in a direct way its max algebra version.
The problem that remains here is the following : the reduction of the Berger Wang formula from the general case of a bounded set of (real)n times n matrices to the non-negative case. This would give a new simple-simpler (or at least an alternative) proof of the Berger Wang formula (in the n times n matrix setting). V. Muller noticed that this reduction is possible in the case of the singelton set {A} by using e.g. upper triangular Schur form of a matrix. What about e.g the case {A,B}?
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Dear Prof. Peters, thank you. I will take a look.
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I want to calculate the determinant of a linear operator L from H to H, where H is a Hilbert space: y=Lx. In my particular problem L is bounded, differentiable end invertible.
Thank you
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All about the determinants - see
"I. Gohberg, S. Goldberg, N. Krupnik: Traces and Determinants of Linear Operators, Birkhauser Verlag, Basel-Boston-Berlin (2000)."
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Hello all , I am reading a research paper that talks about the (P,Q) outer generalised inverse. In order to find some examples in arbitrary Banach spaces, I am excepting the answer for the above question.
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For commutative Banach algebras the Shilov Idempotent Theorem is definitive. Taking the unital case for simplicity, there is a 1-1 correspondence between the clopen subsets of the character space and the idempotents in the commutative unital Banach algebra.
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What is needed is only scalar measurability that is measurability of | f| for forming l1 space and L2 space.
Since issues of measurability depend upon axiom of choice it is advisable to avoid these issues as far as possible.
It is well known that in any integration theory ( daniell, henstock kurzweil lebesgue bochner) each absolutely integral real valued function is measurable.
But in daniell mikisuinski or henstock kurzweil integral one does not need prior measurability for discussing integral
 l1 can be defined as space of absolutely integrable mappings L2 as space of mappings such that | f| square is integrable.
These questions are penitent also in reference to vector measures.
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1. What is necessary to consider and what is not depends on the circle of problems that one studies.
2. When one speaks about Banach space valued functions there is no sense in avoiding concepts that depend on the axiom of choice, because in the Banach space theory everything is based on the Hahn-Banach theorem, which depends on the axiom of choice. So without this axiom you can do nothing. Moreover, on the axiom of choice depends the existence of non-measurable functions, the existence of measurable ones does not depend. So what is the problem?
3. The more tools you know to use, the more results you can obtain.  There are several different (not equivalent) concepts of measurability for Banach space X valued function f. Scalar measurability (composition of f with any bounded linear functional x* is measurable), usual measurability (preimages of Borel sets are measurable) and strong measurability (approximability a.e. by a sequence of simple functions) are the most important ones. The interplay between these types of measurability is an important tool in Banach space theory. For example it is used in the proof of the fact that the dual space to a separable Banach space has the Radon-Nikodym property if and only if this dual space is separable.
4. An advantage of measurability is that it is preserved by many operations that do not preserve integrability. Say, you may manipulate with functions and don't care if the Bochner integrability is preserved on each step: you just need to check measurability at each step (which is usually evident)  and if what you get finally has an integrable majorant, then it is integrable. So breaking  integrability in two parts (strong measurability and existence of an integrable majorant) is very useful. 
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That is, if $f$ is convex, is its approximation convex?
If yes, it can be used to solve in positive a question from the monograph of Deville, Godefroy and Zizler "Smoothness and Renormings in Banach Spaces", if an arbitrary norm on Hilbert space can be approximated by C^2 norm with arbitrary precision. (I can specify the page, but not right now, since I do not have the book near by.)
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No, because it is partial sum is not convex in general.  
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Let H be a Hilbert space and A: H---->H, be a bounded and linear operator, define a mapping A* : H--->H by the relation
<Ax,y>=<x,A*y>, for all x,y in H. Then the mapping A* is called the adjoint of A.
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If E is a Banach space, E* is its dual space (i.e. elements of E* are linear functionals on E), then there is a standard notation for action of functional f \in E* on element x from E: <f, x> instead of f(x). In this notation the definition of adjoint operator T* to operator T: X --> Y is the following: T* acts from Y* to X* and satisfies condition
<T*f, x> = <f, Tx>, or what is the same, (T*f)x = f(Tx).
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There is a famous characterization of reflexive Banach spaces by R.C. James, saying B is reflexive if every bounded linear functional attains its norm on the boundary of the unit ball. Is there a characterization of dual Banach spaces in the spirit of this theorem?
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B(H) is not a WCG space, so it does not fit into Plichko´s theorem. But B(H) is a dual space, because there is a locally convex Hausdorff topology \tau on B(H) that is weaker than the norm topology, and such that the unit ball of B(H) is \tau-compact.
This topology \tau is the topology of weak pointwise convergence.
Best regards, Vladimir
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Any duality map J in a Banach space B is monotone, that is <J(a)-J(b),a-b> is non negative for any a and b in B, where <.,.> denotes the pairing notation. Let T:B --->B be a linear operator such that <J(Ta)-J(Tb),Ta-Tb> is larger or equal to C<J(a)-J(b),a-b> for any a and b in B, being C a positive constant. What is the largest class of linear operators which satisfy this inequality (i.e., the same inequality of T, where C is "strictly" positive)? Please notice that, if we were in Hilbert space, C would be the smallest eigenvalue of T^*T.
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There is an idea to consider instead of inner product <Tx,x> the expression of the form x*(Tx), where x* is a norm-1 linear functional, x is a norm-1 element and x*(x) = 1. With this idea in hand one can generalize concepts of self-adjoint operators and positive operators. Of course, this generalization does not work as good as in Hilbert spaces, but nevertheless sometimes is useful. See the following book, where this idea is used to define self-adjoint and positive elements in Banach algebras.
F.F.Bonsall and J.Duncan,
Numerical Ranges of Operators on Normed Spaces and of Elements
of Normed Algebras, London Math. Soc. Lecture Note Series
2, Cambridge, 1971
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Let X be a Banach space, A D(A)\to X* be a linear operator with closed range and B be a single-valued .monotone operator from X to X*. A question is: is the range of A+B a linear.subspace of X*? If X is reflexive space, the answer is right. how about the general Banach space?
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It has been proved that the range of A+B, Note that is coercive, if X is reflexive, then range of A+B is X^*. if X is a general Banach space, we want to know, whose range whether is a linear subspace. If yes, please give a proof. If not, please give a counterexample.