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Explore the latest questions and answers in Banach Space, and find Banach Space experts.
Questions related to Banach Space
There are numerous Ribe space constructions but ultimately they produce the same general object, a quasi-Banach topology on the direct sum of the real line R with the Banach space l_1 of absolutely summable sequences. In all constructions R and l_1 are algebraic complements but R is closed and not complemented topologically. Every such space is non-locally-convex and Rademacher type 1. However, some embed into Lp for 0<p<1 while others do not. Some versions are minimal which is equivalent to having no basic sequence. Since every subspace of Lp contains a basic sequence, these versions cannot embed into Lp and the versions embedding into Lp must contain a basic sequence. However, every version seems to have the property that the uncomplemented 1-dim. subspace R is a subspace of every inf-dim. closed subspace. Doesn't this mean every version fails to have a basic sequence? Thus, every version is minimal and no version embeds into Lp for any 0<p<1.
Let X be a Banach space with the following properties.
(1) X embeds into every inf. dim. closed subspace.
(2) If T is a vector topology then T is a strictly weaker Hausdorff topology on a subspace
of X if and only if it is the subspace topology of a strictly weaker Hausdorff topology on X.
Question 1: Does (1) follow from (2)?
Question 2: If X is Reflexive, must it be a separable Hilbert space?
Looking for an example of such a space or some argument why such a space doesn't exist.
In the setting of Banach spaces, it is well know that if $M$ is a closed subspace of a Banach space $X$ and $F$ is a finite dimensional subspace of $X$, then $M+F$ is closed.
Does a Banach algebra version of the aforementioned result exist?
That is, if $M$ is a closed left ideal of a Banach algebra $\mathcal{A}$, $F$ is a minimal left ideal of $\mathcal{A}$, whether or not $M+F$ is closed too?
In particular, let $a \in \mathcal{A}$, $R(a):=\{x\in \mathcal{A}: ax=0\}$. If $a\mathcal{A}$ is closed and $R(a)$ is minimal, whether or not $a\mathcal{A}+R(a)$ is closed?
In a number of places in the collective works of Nigel Kalton, there is an unproven claim that l_p(X) is a tensor-product. I think I can show it is isomorphic to the projective tensor-product of l_p and X but the proof is not "immediate" to me. Does anyone know if such a proof is simple? Anyone have a reference for this? Here 1<=p<inf.
I am looking forward to know the concept of Minkowski functional and its geometry to construct a semi-norm? Can anybody suggest me with some good soft copies?
In general, x^n represents the n-th power of x in X (i.e., x multiplied by itself n times) is meaningless. Becaues there is no product in Banach space X.
What is the polynomial functions on the open unit ball of a Banach space?
Suppose L_p is the usual Lebesgue space over (0,1) if you wish. Suppose T_j:L_1-->L_2 defines a sequence of continuous linear operators. Suppose l_1(L_1) is the Banach space of sequences from L_1 with norm (f_j_j-->||f_1||+||f_2||+... . Suppose L_2(l_inf) is the Banach space of sequences (f_j)_j from L_2 with the norm (f_j)_j-->||sup_j|f_j||. Finally, suppose T:l_1(L_1)-->L^2(l_inf) is a linear map defined by
(f_j)_j-->(T_j(f_j))_j.
It seems to me that the fact that T is well-defined, i.e. all outputs are in L_2(l_inf), AND each T_j is continuous implies T is continuous by the closed graph theorem. This is because the candidate limit (f_j)_j when arguing T has a closed graph has to satisfy f_j=T_j(x_j) where (x_j^n)_j converges to (x_j)_j in L_1(l_1).
My uncertainty stems from the following example. Fix T_1 and let T_j=log(j+9)T_1 for j>2. Since this sequence (T_j)_j is not uniformly L_1-->L_2 bounded, the corresponding operator T cannot be bounded(continuous). However, the slow growth of the operator norms is slow enough so that for (f_j)_j in L_1(l_1),
||sup_{j\le N}|T_j(f_j)|||<=||T_1||(sum_j (log(j+9))^2||f_j||^2)^{1/2}.
I'm just estimating by replacing maximal function on left with square function within the L_2 norm. In other words, since (f_j) in L^1(l_1), the right side of the inequality is finite and independent of N. Does this not imply T is well-defined from L_1(l_1) into L_2(l_inf) and thus contradicting the closed graph theorem argument above.
What am I missing? What dumb oversight am I not seeing?
Schauder Fixed Point conjecture deals with the existence of fixed points for certain types of operators on Banach spaces. It suggests that every non-expansive mapping of a non-empty convex, weakly compact subset of a Banach space into itself has a fixed point. The status of this conjecture may depend on the specific assumptions and settings.
Invitation to Contribute to an Edited Book
A Complete Century of Banach Contraction Principle in Metric Fixed Point Theory
As editors, we are pleased to invite you and your colleagues to contribute your research work to an Edited Book entitled A Complete Century of Banach Contraction Principle in Metric Fixed Point Theory to be published by Nova Science Publishers. We hope that this book will be a milestone for many researchers of fixed point analysis and allied areas.
Please go through the details below for the deadlines.
Full chapter submission: July 19, 2023
Review results: Aug. 19, 2023
Revision Submission: Sept. 08, 2023
Final acceptance/rejection notification: Sept.23, 2023
Submission of final chapters to Springer: Sept.28, 2023
Email your papers to anitatmr@yahoo.com or jainmanish26128301@gmail.com or sanjaymudgal2004@yahoo.com (pdf and tex files) at the earliest possible. Submitted papers will be peer-reviewed by 3 reviewers. On acceptance, authors will be requested to submit the final paper as per the format of the book.
Kindly note that there is no fee or charge from authors at any stage of publication.
Looking forward to your valuable contribution.
Best Regards
Anita Tomar
Professor & Head
Department of Mathematics
Pt. L. M. S. Campus
Sridev Suman Uttarakhand University
Rishikesh-249201, India
Manish Jain
Head
Department of Mathematics,
Ahir College, Rewari-123401, India
&
Sanjay Kumar,
Professor
Department of Mathematics
DCRUST, Murthal, Sonepat, India
D={(x1,x2,x3,...,xn)/ xi belongs to [ai,bi], where each ai and bi are real numbers. i belongs to {1,2,3,...,n}}
C(D)={f:D----- R(function from D to R(Set of real numbers))/ f is a continuous function.}
||f||=max(x belongs to D){|f(x)|}
One of the main problems of semigroup theory for linear operators is to decide whether a concrete operator is the generator of a semigroup and how this semigroup is represented.
One idea is to write complicated operators, as a sum of simple operators. For this reason, perturbation theory has become one of the most important topics in semigroup theory. My question is about the multi-perturbed semigroups or multiple perturbation of semigroups in a Banach space. I need a recurrent formula for a semigroup perturbed by multiple (several, i.e. more than two) bounded (in general unbounded) linear operators. I have searched for it, but only found a simple case, called the Dyson-Phillips series for a semigroup generated by A0+A1. How can we find the generalisation of this formula for a semigroup generated by A0+A1+...+An for a fixed natural n? Many thanks in advance. I am looking forward to your suggestions and recommendations on this topic.
I really want to know about the properties of kernel of a function in Banach space. As far i know that kernel of a function is collection of those elements for which its image is zero. But i want to know some more properties like how does its element will look like and in which case we say kernel of a function is closed etc. as such in Banach space. It would be a help if i can be recommended to some books or materials. Thank you
If possible, give an example of a continuous function defined on a convex subset of a Banach space $X$ satisfies Kannan contraction but does not satisfy Banach contraction.
I am working on geometry of banach spces and applications in metric fixed point theory , especially my interesting is renorming of Banach spaces, Is anyone interested in collaboration
If $X$ is a Hausdorff completely regular space and $E$ a Banach space, what are the extreme points of the unit ball of the Banach space $C_b(X, E)$ of all bounded continuous functions from $X$ into $E$, with the uniform norm ?
I am wondering if there is any source which disusses quasi-norms on a tensor product of quasi-Banach spaces. Without duality, this topic is likely much less interesting but I wonder if there are examples beyond trivial ones that can be constructed, e.g. p-convex quasi-tensor norms for products of locally-p-convex spaces analogous to the projective tensor norm for products of Banach spaces.
Let E be a real Banach space and E' its dual. Let f:E->R and a belongs to E. We say that f is differentiable at the point a if it exists Df(a) belongs to E' so that
limx->a[f(x)-f(a)-Df(a)(x-a)]/(//x-a//)=0. So, we defined Df(a), the differential of f at the point a.
Let Ca1(E) be the vector space of all functions f:E->R differentiable at the point a. Let Da(E)={Df(a)/f belongs to Ca1(E)}.
Can we find an infinite dimensional real Banach space E, so that Da(E) be dense in E'? What happens in the case of complex Banach spaces?
Of course every Banach space has type 1 and it is known that if 0<p<1 then every quasi-Banach space has type p if and only if it is locally-p-convex. Below is a question and some comments which I think are worthy of discussion. I am not certain of some comments so any corrections or insights would be appreciated. If this discussion gets off the ground, I can provide some extra information and references.
Question: Must a quasi-Banach space of type 1 equal its Mackey topology completion?
1. If there is a non-locally convex space of type 1 with a separating dual then the answer to the above question is negative. However, I don't know of such a space.
2. The Ribe space R is a non-locally convex space whose dual vanishes on a one-dimensional subspace L such that the quotient R/L is the Banach space of absolutely summable scalar sequences. Thus, the completion of R with respect to its Mackey topology is a pseudo-normed space with a 1-dimensional null subspace. Thus, this is a complete pseudo-normed space and is known to have type 1.
3. Consider the Lorentz spaces L1,q for q in [1,inf].
- L1,1 is the Banach space L1 and is therefore type 1 and of course complete in its Mackey topology.
- L1,inf is the non-locally-convex space weak-L1. This space has a complicated, non-trivial dual. I am not sure how to determine if this space is a complete pseudo-normed space in its Mackey topology but it is known that this space does NOT have type 1 but is locally-p-covex for every 0<p<1.
- If 1<q<inf, L1,q has a trivial dual space. Thus, it is complete in its Mackey topology as this is the trivial space {0}. This space is known to have type 1.
I am working on a perturbation h of the identity I on a Banach space X, i.e. h(x) = x – f(x), with f(0)=0.
f is regular enough on X, but I do not know if the regularity holds on a subspace Y of X.
More precisely:
f is C^1_{Lip} and the operator (I – f_x(0))^{-1} exists and it is bounded in L(X), so that the classic conditions for the existence of a local inverse in a neighborhood of x=0 are satisfied. Let this inverse function be h^{-1}: B(0,R_1) \to B(0,R).
Now, the question.
Let Y be a Banach subspace of X, embedded continuously with norm \| \cdot \|_Y in X.
f is Lipschitz in the Y-norm, moreover we have h(Y) \subseteq Y
and if y \in B(0,R_1) \cap Y then h^{-1}(y) \in Y.
We have also that (I – f_x(0))^{-1}|_Y \in L(Y).
Are these conditions sufficient for the continuity of h^{-1}(y)|_Y , (or at least for the boundedness) without assuming that h|_Y in C^1 ?
I have a cost function of real variable x to be minimized as follow:
J(x) = || A(x) - b ||2 + || x ||2
the 1st norm is in complex Banach space and the 2nd norm is in real admissible Hilbert space.
The problem is that when using e.g. gradient descent method, the 1st sentence gradient is a complex number, which will give wrong result due to the initial assumption that x is real.
Any help is appreciated
I'm currently working on fixed point theorems on uniformly convex spaces and I will love if anyone can point my attention to spaces that are uniformly convex apart from the ones I have listed above.
How to properly characterize a ten-dimensional space. How does it fit with the modern understanding of the environment.

A Banach space has property BD if every limited subset of it is relatively weakly compact.
A subset $A$ of $X$ is called a Grothendieck set if every operator $T:X\to c_0$ maps $A$ onto a relatively weakly compact set.
A Banach space $X$ has the weak Gelfand-Phillips (wGP) property if every Grothendieck set in $X$ is relatively weakly compact.
Every limited set is a Grothendieck set. If X has the wGP property , then X has the BD property.
It is known that if X does not contain $\ell_1$, then X has property BD. Moreover, it has property wGP.
Given a Banach space X and the fact that all norms are equivalent, does it follow that dimension of X is finite? The converse statement is proved in many books however I didn't find this statement neither proved or disproved anywhere. Does there exist any relevant book where this is described? Thank you for any links or answers.
Filip Soudský
My question is about quotient function spaces.
More precisely, let X be a Banach spaces with norm ||.|| and K be a closed subspace of X. It is known (see e.g. Taylor-Lay, Introduction to Functional Analysis, Theorem 5.1) that the quotient space X/K is still a Banach space with |||[u]|||=inf ||x||, with x in [u].
If we further assume that X is uniformly convex, it is then easy to show the existence of a unique u0 in every equivalence class [u] such that |||[u]|||=||u0||.
Moreover, the map, say G: X/K -->X defined by G[u]=u0 is continuous. Again the continuity of G is a consequence of the reflexivity of X, which derives from its uniform convexity.
Now comes my question. Has G some additional regularity property such as lipschitizanity?
A reasonable method of defining an integral that includes the HK integral is to say a Schwartz distribution $f$ is integrable if it is the distributional derivative of a continuous function $F$. Then the integral $(D)\int^b_a f=F(b)-F(a)$. The resulting space of integrable distributions is a Banach space that includes the space of HK integrable functions and is isometrically isomorphic (with Alexiewicz norm) to the continuous functions vanishing at $a$ (with uniform norm).
If $F=C$ is the Cantor(the Devil's staircase) function and $\langle C'\rangle$ (we use notation $\langle C'\rangle$ to avoid confusion and in some situation $C'$) is the distributional derivative of $C$, then
$(D)\int^0_1 \langle C'\rangle=C(1)-C(0)=1-0=1$. Note that $\langle C'\rangle$ is a measure.
If here $C'$ denotes derivative in classical sense then $C'=0$ a.e. and $(HK)\int^0_1 C'=0$.
Suppose $F$ is continuous on $[a,b]$. Also suppose $f(t)=F'(t)$ exists except on a countable set $Q=(c_k)$; define $f$ arbitrarily on $Q$. Then
Then $\int_a^t f(x) dx $ exists and equals $F(t)-F(a)$.
See for example
"An Open Letter to Authors of Calculus Books". Retrieved 27 February 2014.
NEWTON–LEIBNIZ FORMULA AND HENSTOCK–KURZWEIL INTEGRAL ZVONIMIR \v SIKI\'C, ZAGREB
We know that mathematicians study different mathematical spaces such as Hilbert space, Banach space, Sobolev space, etc...
but as engineers, is it necessary for us to understand the definition of these spaces?
We know that if X is a uniformly rotund space then for every closed subspace M of X, X/M is uniformly convex. Does the similar assertion true for a locally uniformly rotund space ? If not is there any known sufficient conditio for that?
Let X be a normed linear space and let Y be a subspace of X. How are X* and Y* related. Is always Y* contained in X* or the reverse inclusion is also possible?
Let X be a Banach space and let T be a bounded linear operator on X. We know that if X is reflexive and T is compact then there exists x in the unit sphere of X such that T attains its norm at x. Can we impose any condition on X or on T such that x is the unique such point?
Infinity Tuple is an infinity component of commutative bounded linear operators acting on common Ordered Hilbert space H(or Ordered Banach space), as T=(T1,T2,...,Tn,...). By Orbit(T,x) as x is in H we mean that union of orbit of all n-tuples generated by T1,T2,....
Is there any problem if we use T(x) for Supn{T1T2...Tn(x):n in N}
The Schwartz space of rapidly decreasing functions consists of all infinitely differentiable complex-valued functions on R that vanish at infinity, along with their derivatives, more rapidly than any polynomial. As it is known, an orthonormal basis in the Schwartz space is the so-called Hermite basis, which contains the functions Hn(x)exp(-x2/2), with n=0,1,… and Hn(x) is the n-degree Hermite polynomial. It is also known that the Schwartz space with the L2 norm is a dense subspace of the Banach space L2(R).
Apart from the Hermite basis, are there other bases of the Schwartz space that can be expressed in closed form?
The open mapping theorem is usually proved in most texts using Baires Category theorem which depends upon the axiom of choice.
But if one studies differential calculus in Banach spaces say as in Dieuodenne Foundations of Modern Analysis the theorem is the first part of Inverse mapping theorem( as proved in Walter Rudin's classic Principles of Mathematical Analysis and the proof carries over to Banach space setting ) as a contiuous linear mapis differentiable This proof does not depend upon Baires Category Theorem..
Are there any examples of an everywhere defined unbounded operator acting on a banach spaces which is surjective but not necessarely injective ?
In the theory of the stability of the differential operators, one could prove the stability results based on spectra of an operator, (all eigenvalues must be negative for example).
one problem with the above method is that not all linear operators are self-adjoint (for examples operators in convection diffusion form) and their corresponding eigenvalue problem can not be solved analytically, hence spectra of the operator can not be calculated analytically. On the other hand there is a definition related to spectra, which is called pseudo-spectra, that somehow evaluates the approximated spectrum , even for non self-adjoint operators.
I want to know is it possible to establish stability results for a differential operator based on pseudo-spectra?
I begin anew research on this topic
In finite dimensionnal spaces, the sum is evidentely closed. If one of the subspaces is of finite dimension, the result is a simple translation of closed subspace. The situation in infinite dimension spaces is difficult and I do not find a good example or a proof of that the sum is always closed.
I received and find a lot of examples but they do not take care to completeness of the ambiant space X. For example, at the attachement, The space X=IR[X] is not a banach one
a comparatively simpler proof of change of variables in Lebesgue multiple integral in euclidean spaces is in serge lang analysis Ii and only one part is valid for Banach spaces?
Let X be a Banach space which has no infinite reflexive subspaces.
Does this assumption implies that the space X itself is not reflexive?
Let $X$ be a complex Banach space and $T$ be a bounded operator acting on $X$. Let $\sigma(T)$ and $\sigma_{ap}(T)$ denote the spectrum and approximate point spectrum of $T$, respectively. Let $\lambda \in \sigma(T)$. It is classical that, with the aid of the spectral projection, $\lambda$ is isolated in $\sigma(T)$ if and only if $T - \lambda$ can be decomposed as a direct sum of a quasinilpotent operator and a invertible one. Now my nature question is as follows: Let $\lambda \in \sigma_{ap}(T)$. Is it true that $\lambda$ is isolated in $\sigma_{ap}(T)$ if and only if $T - \lambda$ can be decomposed as a direct sum of a quasinilpotent operator and a bounded belowness one? Here we say that an operator is bounded below if it is injective and its range is closed. It is also nature to find the answer for other spectra (eg. left spectrum, surjective spectrum, right spectrum, essential spectrum,...). Thank you!
In the peridynamic state based model, the Frechet derivative is used, I would like to know why is this derivative is used, instead of the Gateaux or the ordinary derivative?
Consider an infinite dimensional Banach space X equipped with its weak topology \sigma(X,X^*). It is not a metrizable space, but if it is a paracompact space? Related properties for the weak topology on some subsets of X?
A proof of the aforementioned result can also be found in the text of Kalton, Peck, and Roberts(p.75). While working on something else, I think I have stumbled on a general principle that would prove the same conclusion without the assumption of separability.
Can you list some examples of ordered Banach spaces?
Suppose we consider Banach sp valued mappings and integration in several variables.
1) in general one can also define refinement integral . i m also aware that it does not make difference to hk integral even for banach space valued maps.
2) but Riemann integral of two variables is defined on,ly using NEt partttions. for real functions abolute integrability will coincide with lebesgue and we have only one unique daniell extenmsion.
but Suppose i start with normed space of riemann integrable mappings ( not functions) then riemann integral is not absolute integral for mappings and we can extend by a method which is variant of daniell process described by professor M.Leinert.
we can also extend integral on step maps .
we can also extend hk integral for maps
1) is the daniell extension of riemann integral different from hk integral in the sense there are are mappings which are daniellriemann integrable but not hk?
2) it is well known that if we restrict our attention to only net parttions then given agauge delta ( a rectangle containing a point) one need not have a delta fine net partition.
3) however if we consider gauges as product of gauges on x and y axis then it will exist . why not use such gauges
4) the only obstacle seems to be that if a set is of measure zero( def : integral of characteristic function is zero is a Null set ( def : integral of any positive function is zero on that set.) The result may not hold good.
5) but then we use only null sets. and we have each negilgible set ( def one which can be covered by countable union of rectangles so that sum total volume is arbitrarily small ) is a null set..
i shall ve very happy if discussion and guidance on these issues is available. i may post on research gate as well.
6) so can we use such gauges ?
Of course there are uncomplimented subspaces of Banach spaces but the sequence space little-Lp is "projective" for the category of p-Banach spaces. Thus, if X is a p-Banach space with closed subspace N and T is an operator from little-Lp to X/N there is a lifting S(not necessarily unique) from little-Lp to X.
Moreover, since X/N is p-normable there is an index set I such that there is a surjection from little-Lp(I) to X/N. Thus, this surjection has a lifting to X. Does this imply N is complimented or is the uniqueness of the lifting required?
I don't know how to character the predual of Morrey space with variable exponent
Some problems of differential equations could be reduced to fixed points of mappings between Banach spaces of different dimensions, in which case the classical Leray-Schauder degree does not apply. So, I am wondering whether there exists topological degree of this type? Could someone tell me some references on this topic?
Best wishes,
Liangping Qi
The functional is defined from a convex closed bounded subspace A of a banach space E to the real space R
I wonder if someone have a short proof for the following fact X* +Y*=(X∩Y)*. where X*+Y*= {r = x*+y*; x*∈X* ,y*∈Y*}. It is clear that any functional r = x*+y* belongs to (X∩Y)*. How to prove that there are no more liner bounded functionals on X∩Y ?
Let Z be a topological vector space. X and Y be Banach spaces embedded to Z.
I am wondering whether the relative interior of a linear subspace which is not closed is empty or not ? I work in a general Banach space.
In the paper V. MÜLLER, A. PEPERKO, Generalized spectral radius and its max algebra version, LAA, 2013, 1006-1016 we (also) gave quite a simple proof of the Berger- Wang formula on the equality of the joint and the generalized spectral radius of a bounded set of non-negative (entrywise) n times n matrices, by first proving in a direct way its max algebra version.
The problem that remains here is the following : the reduction of the Berger Wang formula from the general case of a bounded set of (real)n times n matrices to the non-negative case. This would give a new simple-simpler (or at least an alternative) proof of the Berger Wang formula (in the n times n matrix setting). V. Muller noticed that this reduction is possible in the case of the singelton set {A} by using e.g. upper triangular Schur form of a matrix. What about e.g the case {A,B}?
I want to calculate the determinant of a linear operator L from H to H, where H is a Hilbert space: y=Lx. In my particular problem L is bounded, differentiable end invertible.
Thank you
Hello all , I am reading a research paper that talks about the (P,Q) outer generalised inverse. In order to find some examples in arbitrary Banach spaces, I am excepting the answer for the above question.
What is needed is only scalar measurability that is measurability of | f| for forming l1 space and L2 space.
Since issues of measurability depend upon axiom of choice it is advisable to avoid these issues as far as possible.
It is well known that in any integration theory ( daniell, henstock kurzweil lebesgue bochner) each absolutely integral real valued function is measurable.
But in daniell mikisuinski or henstock kurzweil integral one does not need prior measurability for discussing integral
l1 can be defined as space of absolutely integrable mappings L2 as space of mappings such that | f| square is integrable.
These questions are penitent also in reference to vector measures.
That is, if $f$ is convex, is its approximation convex?
If yes, it can be used to solve in positive a question from the monograph of Deville, Godefroy and Zizler "Smoothness and Renormings in Banach Spaces", if an arbitrary norm on Hilbert space can be approximated by C^2 norm with arbitrary precision. (I can specify the page, but not right now, since I do not have the book near by.)
Let H be a Hilbert space and A: H---->H, be a bounded and linear operator, define a mapping A* : H--->H by the relation
<Ax,y>=<x,A*y>, for all x,y in H. Then the mapping A* is called the adjoint of A.
There is a famous characterization of reflexive Banach spaces by R.C. James, saying B is reflexive if every bounded linear functional attains its norm on the boundary of the unit ball. Is there a characterization of dual Banach spaces in the spirit of this theorem?
Any duality map J in a Banach space B is monotone, that is <J(a)-J(b),a-b> is non negative for any a and b in B, where <.,.> denotes the pairing notation. Let T:B --->B be a linear operator such that <J(Ta)-J(Tb),Ta-Tb> is larger or equal to C<J(a)-J(b),a-b> for any a and b in B, being C a positive constant. What is the largest class of linear operators which satisfy this inequality (i.e., the same inequality of T, where C is "strictly" positive)? Please notice that, if we were in Hilbert space, C would be the smallest eigenvalue of T^*T.
Let X be a Banach space, A D(A)\to X* be a linear operator with closed range and B be a single-valued .monotone operator from X to X*. A question is: is the range of A+B a linear.subspace of X*? If X is reflexive space, the answer is right. how about the general Banach space?