How to interpret 40% reduced protein levels and 20% reduced phosphorylation levels?

I am evaluating Western Blot data and came across the following situation: total protein level is reduced by 40% normalized to actin. Phospho-protein is reduced by 20% normalized to actin. Always compared to treatment control.

When I put these data together as phosphoprotein/protein from the normalized data I get an 1.3-fold induction of the phosphorylation.

Can I then state that phospho-protein is enhanced?Is it reliable or just an artifact from the lower total protein levels?

What's your opinion? How do you handle such results?