Can foreign investments match the foreign exchange value in a country's economic market?

For example, in India, between 1994-1995 and 2009-2010, foreign investment inflow has ranged between 6 to 15% of overall investment. 70-80% of investment is actually financed by household savings.

Foreign remittence's by Indian workers living abroad (typically fitters, plumbers and masons in the Middle East) has consistently matched foreign exchange revenue earned by exporters of software and software-enabled services.

1) Are these figures correct?

2) What do these numbers mean?

3) What influence these numbers inflict in the (a) International market? and (b) Indian market?